NEET Zoology Test Paper by TEACHING CARE online tuition and coaching classes

  1. Which of the following are the characteristics of prokaryotes?

(a) Single chromosome made up of nucleic acid complexed with histone and 70

S ribosome comprised of 30 S and 50 S.

(b) Single chromosome made up of naked nucleic acid and 70 S ribosome

comprised of 30 S and 50 S.

(c) Single chromosome made up of nucleic acid complexed with histone and 80

S ribosome comprised of 40 S and 50 S.

(d) Single chromosome made up of naked nucleic acid and 80 S ribosome

comprised 30 Sand 50 S.

Ans b. Histones are basic proteins found associated with eukaryotic DNA

 

  1. The amount of DNA in G1 phase of cell cycle is

(a) Same as found in G2 phase

(b) Half the amount found in G2 phase

(c) Double the amount found in G2 phase

(d) Four times the amount found in G2 phase

Ans b. Cell cycle sequence of stages G1-S- G2-M. In S phase DNA replicates, hence, amount of DNA becomes double in G2 as compared to G1

  1. Consider the following statements:
  2. Friedrich Miescher first isolated nucleic acids from pus cells.
  3. Hershey and Chase showed through experiment that genetic material was

DNA and not protein.

  1. Meselson and Stahl proved the semi-conservative replication of DNA.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1,2 and 3

Ans d. Hershey and Chase used radioactivity in Bacteriophage to prove the semi-conservative replication of DNA.

  1. The nucleolar organiser is located on the chromosome in the region of

(a) Primary constriction (b) Secondary constriction

(c) Kinetochore           (d) Telomere

Ans b. The nucleolus organizer region (NOR) or nucleolar organizer is a chromosomal region around which the nucleolus forms. This region is the particular part of a chromosome that is associated with a nucleolus after the nucleus divides. The region contains several tandem copies of ribosomal RNA genes. In humans, the NOR contains genes for 5.8S, 18S, and 28S rRNA

  1. During cell-cycle, the duration of which of the following phases is the

shortest?

(a) Mitosis    (b) G. phase

(c) S phase (d) G2 phase

Ans a. Mitosis 1 hour.    G1 phase 10 hrs.

S phase 9 hrs.  G2 phase 4 hrs

 

  1. Prions are disease causing agents composed of

(a) DNA and protein.

(b) DNA

(c) RNA

(d) Protein

Ans d. A prion  is an infectious agent composed of protein in a misfolded form. This is in contrast to all other known infectious agents (virus/bacteria/fungus/parasite) which must contain nucleic acids (either DNARNA, or both).

  1. Consider the following statements:
  2. In the lampbrush chromosomes of amphibian oocytes, the loops are engaged

in the transcription.

  1. In polytene chromosomes, the puffs are the sites of mRNA formation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only (b) 2 only

(c) Both I and 2 (d) Neither I nor 2

Ans c.

  1. 8. Consider the  following statements :

 

cDNA  libraries  are   prepared   from isolated

 

  1. tRNAs

 

  1. rRNAs
  • 3.  mRNAs

 

Which     of   the     statements    given above  is/ are  correct?

 

(a]    1 and  2

 

(b)   2  only

 

(c)    2  and   3

 

(d)    3  only

 

Ans d. cDNA library is a combination of cloned cDNA (complementary DNA) fragments inserted into a collection of host cells, which together constitute some portion of thetranscriptome of the organism. cDNA is produced from fully transcribed mRNA found in the nucleus and therefore contains only the expressed genes of an organism.

 

  1. Consider the following statements regarding a DNA segment 1000 base pair

long:

  1. It measures 3400 A.
  2. It has 10 complete turns. .
  3. It has 100 nucleotides.
  4. The RNA synthesized from it carries 1000 nucleotides.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and 2 (b) 3 and 4

(c) I and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4

Ans c. One complete turn of DNA measures 34 A0 and contains 10 base pairs.

  1. Which types of specialized sequences are carried at both ends of linear

chromosomes for faithful DNA replication, aging and maintaining polarity?

(a) Satellites (b) Telomeres

(c) Organisers (d) Repetitive sequences

Ans b. A telomere is a region of repetitive nucleotide sequences at each end of a chromosome, which protects the end of the chromosome from deterioration or from fusion with neighboring chromosomes. Telomere regions deter the degradation of genes near the ends of chromosomes by allowing chromosome ends to shorten, which necessarily occurs during chromosome replication. Over time, due to each cell division, the telomere ends become shorter.

During cell divisionenzymes that duplicate DNA cannot continue their duplication all the way to the end of chromosomes. If cells divided without telomeres, they would lose the ends of their chromosomes, and the necessary information they contain. The telomeres are disposable buffers blocking the ends of the chromosomes, are consumed during cell division, and are replenished by an enzyme, telomerase reverse transcriptase.

 

  1. Match List I (Theory) with List II (Scientist) and select the correct answer

using the code given below the lists :

List I                                                            List II

  1. Germ Plasm theory 1. Jean Baptiste Lamarck
  2. Inheritance of Acquired Characters 2. Hugo De Vries
  3. Mutation theory 3. Louis Pasteur
  4. August Weismann

A  B  C                   A  B  C

(a) 3  1  2               (b) 4  1  2

(c) 4  2  1               (d) 3  2  1

Ans b

  1. Which one of the following combinations of structural features are expected

to be present in a secretory cell?

(a) Well developed rough endoplasmic reticulum and prominent Golgi bodies

(b) Abundant Iysosomes and secretory granules

(c) Enlarged nucleus and well developed rough endoplasmic reticulum

(d) Well developed smooth endoplasmic reticulum and secretory granules

Ans a. Rough endoplasmic reticulum has ribosomes on its surface for protein synthesis. The secretory proteins are transferred to Golgi complex for further processing and packaging.

  1. A couple with normal vision had colour blind father each. What is the

percentage of probability that the daughter of the couple is colour blind?

(a) 100% (b) 50%

(c) 25% (d) 0 %

Ans d. The gene for colour blindness is present on X chromosome and is recessive.

  1. Match List-I with   List-II  and  select the correct answer using the  code  given  below  the  Lists

 

      List-I                            List-II

 

(Sex  Chromosomes)                 (Animals)

 

 

  1. XY female, XX male  1.  Grasshopper

 

  1. XO female, XX male  2.  Honeybee

 

  1. XX female, XO male     3.  Moths

 

  1. 2n  female,  n male       4.  Birds

 

 

 

 

 

 

Code:

 

(a)   A        B     c     D

3      2        1      4

 

(b)    A        B       c     D

3      1     2        4

 

(c)    A         B     c     D

4      3      2        1

 

(d)   A        B     c      D

4         3       1      2

 

Ans d

 

The XX/XY sex-determination system is the most familiar, as it is found in humans. In the system, females have two of the same kind of sex chromosome (XX), while males have two distinct sex chromosomes (XY). XX/X0 sex determination In this variant of the XY system, females have two copies of the sex chromosome (XX) but males have only one (X0). The 0 denotes the absence of a second sex chromosome. The ZW sex-determination system is found in birds, reptiles, some insects and other organisms. The ZW sex-determination system is reversed compared to the XY system: females have two different kinds of chromosomes (ZW), and males have two of the same kind of chromosomes (ZZ). Haplodiploidy is found in insects belonging to Hymenoptera, such as ants and bees. Unfertilized eggs develop into haploid individuals, which are the males. Diploid individuals are generally female but may be sterile males.

 

  1. Match List I (Membrane model) with List II (Scientist) and select the

correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I                                                                       List II

  1. Protein-lipid-protein or sandwich model 1. Robertson
  2. Unit membrane model 2. Singer and Nicolson
  3. Fluid-mosaic model 3. Davson and Denielli

A  B  C                    A  B  C

(a) 1  3  2                (b) 2  1  3

(c) 3  1  2                (d) 3  2  1

Ans. c

  1. Consider the following statements:
  2. Peroxisomes contain amino acid oxidases, urate oxidases and catalases.
  3. In mitochondria, the Krebs-cycle reactions occur in the outer mitochondrial

membrane.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only (b) 2 only

(c) Both I and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans a. In mitochondria, the Krebs-cycle reactions occur in the mitochondrial matrix.

  1. Sickle cell anemia is due to the substitution of

(a) Glutamic acid for valine at 6th position in beta-chain

(b) Valine for glutamic acid at 6th position in beta-chain

(c) Valine for glutamic acid at 5th position in beta-chain

(d) Glutamic acid for valine at 5th position in beta-chain

Ans a

  1. Consider the following pairs:
  2. Ribosomes : Protein synthesis
  3. Okazaki fragment : RNA synthesis
  4. Ligase : DNA synthesis

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only    (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3′ (d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans c. Okazaki fragments help in DNA synthesis

  1. Philadelphia chromosome refers to the translocation between the long arms of

(a) Chromosomes 8 and 18

(b) Chromosomes 9 and 18

(c) Chromosomes 9 and 22

(d) Chromosomes 6 and 22

Ans c. Philadelphia chromosome or Philadelphia translocation is a specific chromosomal abnormality that is associated with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). It is the result of a reciprocal translocation between chromosome 9 and 22, and is specifically designated t(9;22)(q34;q11)

  1. Consider the following statements with reference to prokaryotic translation:.
  2. Charged tRNA carries amino acid at 5 end.
  3. Charged tRNA enters the ribosome through A site during elongation of

polypeptides.

  1. Ribosomes can accommodate 3 mRNA codons at a time.
  2. mRNA is translated from 5’-3’ direction.

Which of the statements given above. are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

Ans d. Charged tRNA carries amino acid at 3 end. Ribosomes can accommodate 2 mRNA codons at P site and A site at a time

  1. Which cell      component    among

the        following       is       responsible for   the    process   of   detoxification of      foreign       substances     using cytochrome  P450   in   mammalian liver?

 

(a)    Mitochondria

 

(b)    Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

 

(c)    Lysosomes

 

(d)    Peroxisomes

 

Ans. b

 

  1. Match List I (Organism) with List Ii (Mode of locomotion) and select the

correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I                                             List II

  1. Mastigophora 1. Locomotion by pseudopodia
  2. Sarcodina 2. Locomotion by flagella
  3. Sporozoa 3. Parasites having no locomotory organs

 

A  B  C           A  B  C

(a) 1  2  3       (b) 2  3  1

(c) 3  1  2       (d) 2  1  3

Ans d

  1. Consider the following characteristics of coelomates:
  2. Radial symmetry
  3. Digestion
  4. Origin of mouth
  5. Embryonic cleavage pattern
  6. Coelom formation

If basic differences are to be found between protostome coelomates and

deuterostome coelomates, consideration of which of the above characteristics

will suffice?

(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 3, 4 and 5

(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 5 only

Ans b.

 

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  1. Acridine dyes  such as  lCR-170  and ICR-191     are       very       powerful mutagens that  induce

 

(a)    point  mutations

 

  1. b) frameshift mutations

 

(c)    thiamine dimer formation

 

(d)    suppressor mutations

 

Ans b. Acridine and related derivatives bind to DNA and RNA due to their abilities to intercalate between bases

 

  1. Match List I (Class) with List II (Example) and select the correct answer

using the codes given below the lists:

List I                                  List II

  1. Polyplacophora 1. Dentalium
  2. Monoplacophora 2. Chiton
  3. Cephalopoda 3. Nautilus
  4. Scaphopoda 4. Neopilina

 

 

A  B  C  D      A  B  C  D

(a) 1  3  4  2   (b) 1  4  3  2

(c) 2  3  4  1   (d) 2  4  3  1

Ans d

  1. Sea lily is the stalked echinoderm of the class

(a) Articulata (b) Asterozoa

(c) Crinoidea (d) Echinozoa

Ans c

  1. Consider the  following statements :

 

Carrier  proteins  are    required for the      transport across     plasma

membrane  of

  1. amino acids

 

  1. glucose

 

  1. ions

 

 

Which   of    the     statements    given above   isIare correct?

 

(a}    1  and 2  only

 

(b)    2  only

 

(c)    2  and 3 only

 

(d)    1,  2  and 3

 

Ans d. Glucose and amino acids are transported by secondary active transport via a transportere. Ions pass through ion channels

 

  1. Consider the following   statements related to mitosis of an animal cell :

 

  1. Cells    have    least  amount  of

DNA in  G1 period.

 

  1. The         amount       of        DNA throughout  interphase  is   not  constant.

 

  1. A  G 2   nucleus  has  maximum amount of  DNA.

Which     of    the    statements    given

above are  correct?

(a)    1  and   2  only

(b)    1  and 3 only

(c)    2  and   3 only

(d)    1, 2  and   3

Ans d

 

  1. Consider the following anatomical structures:
  2. Single dorsal tubular nerve cord
  3. Notochord
  4. Gill slits in pharynx
  5. Brain

The outstanding characteristics which distinguish chordates from other animals

are

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4

Ans c. Brain is also found in non chordates

  1. Which one among the following undertakes the longest migration?

(a) Arctic tern (b) Flamingo

(c) Painted stork (d) Pelican

Ans a

  1. Mitosis promoting factor (MPF) has two  key  subunits-one is  catalytic and the  other is  regulatory.  Which  one      of     the     following      is     the  regulatory  subunit?

 

(a)   cdk

 

(b)    cyclin

(c)    dynein

(d)   actin

Ans b. Cdk is catalytic unit.

  1. Which of  the   following   statements about DNA is  not  correct?

 

(a]   The    double   helix     is    right­

handed

 

(b)   The     nitrogenous   bases     are  stacked  on   the   inside   of   the  helix

 

(c)    The  two  strands of the  double helix  are  anti-parallel

 

(d)   The   bases  of   the    two   poly- nucleotides       -interact         by covalent bonding

Ans d.    The   bases  of   the    two   poly- nucleotides       -interact         by Hydrogen bonding

 

 

  1. If  a  cell   is   subjected   to   ionizing radiations,     which    one     of     the  following    mutations   is    likely    to occur?

 

(a)   Transition

 

(b)   Transversion

 

(c)   Insertion

 

(d)    Deletion

 

Ans a

  1. Consider the  following   statements with  respect to  translation and choose the correct one:

 

  1. During    elongation     process, tRNA  with   amino  acid   enters through    the     P-site      of     a ribosome.
  2. Peptidyl-transferase  helps    in peptide       bond         formation between two  amino  acids.

 

  1. Inside   the     ribosome,    codon of   tRNA   fits   with   the   anti­ codon of  mRNA.

 

  1. A  ribosome can  accommodate only  one  tRNA  at  a time.

Ans b

During    elongation     process, tRNA  with   amino  acid   enters through    the     A-site      of     a ribosome.Inside   the     ribosome,    anti-codon of   tRNA   fits   with   the    codon of  mRNA.

A  ribosome can  accommodate 2  tRNA  at  a time.

 

 

  1. Metagenesis in Obelia signifies the

(a) Alternation of generations between free swimming diploid medusoid and

diploid polypoid stage

(b) Alternation of generations between haploid gametogenetic medusa and

polypoid stage

(c) Formation of medusa on gonangium

(d) Formation of polyp by budding

Ans a. Alternation of generations (also known as alternation of phases ) is a term primarily used to describe the life cycleof plants . A multicellular sporophyte, which is diploid with 2N paired chromosomes (i.e. N pairs), alternates with a multicellular gametophyte, which is haploid with N unpaired chromosomes.  Alternation of generations between free swimming diploid medusoid and

diploid polypoid stage of Obelia is known as metagenesis.

 

  1. Which one of the following phenomena occurs during reproduction in

Neanthes/Neries?

(a) Endomixis           (b) Epitoky

(c) Alternation           (d) Metagenesis

Ans b. Heteroneries is a free-swimming, dimorphic, sexual form of certain species of Nereis. In this state the head and its appendages are changed in form, the eyes become very large; more or less of the parapodia are highly modified by the development of finlike lobes, and branchial lamellae, and their setae become longer and bladelike. Anterior part of heteronereis is called atoke while posterior is called epitoke

  1. Consider the following statements:

Pheretima posthuma is characterized by

  1. true coelomic body cavity lined by coelomic epithelium.
  2. closed circulatory system.
  3. lateal hearts with valves.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) I and 3 (d) I, 2 and 3.

Ans d

  1. Which of the following explain the functions of statocyst in some non chordates?

(a) Locomotion and touch

(b) Smell and movement

(c) Smell and equilibrium

(d) Orientation and equilibrium

Ans d. Statocysts occur in cnidaria

  1. Madreporite, the circular, flat, calcareous plate in Asterias sp. is situated

near the

(a) anus on the aboral surface

(b) mouth on the oral surface

(c) side of the arms on the ‘Oral surface

(d) the junction of the arms on the aboral surface

Ans a.

  1. Both Hydra    and    Planaria    are  metazoans. Though they  belong  to different  phyla,  they   possess  one  common  interesting  feature.  What is  that common  feature?

 

(a)   Presence of flame  cells

 

(b)    Phenomenon of  regeneration

 

(c)    Polymorphism

 

(d)    Bilateral symmetry

 

 

  1. The osphradium in Pila sp. is the organ responsible for

(a) Tactile activity (b) Equilibrium

(c) Sensing light (d) Chemoreception

Ans d. The osphradium is the olfactory organ in certain molluscs, linked with the respiration organ. The main function of this organ is to test incoming water for silt and possible food particles.

  1. Which of the following is a reptilian feature of a prototherian mammal?

(a) Absence of pinna

(b) Presence of cloaca

(c) Vertebrate without epiphysis

(d) Single and uncoiled cochlea

Ans b

  1. The body  cavity of Ascaris cannot be called coelom, because

 

(a)    the  cavity   is  perivisceral

 

(b)    the   gut  and  gonads lie  within the  cavity

 

(c)    the    cavity    contains   pseudo­

coelomocytes

 

(d)    the      cavity   lacks     epithelial lining

 

Ans d. Coelom is lined by mesodermal epithelial lining

 

  1. Which one of the following is the main constituent of Pearl?

(a) Calcium carbonate (b) Magnesium carbonate

(c) Calcium oxide (d) Magnesium sulphate

Ans a

  1. Which one of the following reptiles is an edentate?

(a) Chamaeleon (b) Garden lizard

(c) Gecko           (d) Turtle

Ans d

  1. The process that sperm undergoes in female genital. tract of   mammals before fertilization is called

 

(a)   decapacitation

 

(b)   capacitation

 

(c)    activation

 

(d)   deactivation

 

Ans b

  1. Consider the following:
  2. Endothelium of foetal blood capillaries.
  3. Connective tissue surrounding foetal blood capillaries.
  4. Foetal epithelium.
  5. Maternal epithelium.
  6. Connective tissue surrounding maternal blood capillaries.
  7. Endothelium of maternal blood capillaries.

In the case of humans, the placenta comprises which of the above?

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

(b) 1, 5 and 6

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 6

Ans c. In human beings the placenta is haemochorial

  1. An  enzyme,    hexokinase,     which catalyzes    glucose    to     glucose-6- phosphate in glycolysis, is inhibited by  glucose-6-phosphate.  This  is  an example for

 

(a)   feedback allosteric inhibition

(b).   positive feedback inhibition

(c)   competitive inhibition

(d)   non-competitive inhibition

Ans a. Hexokinase is inhibited by negative feedback allosteric inhibition

  1. Which one of the following is not under the direct control of pituitary gland

with respect to the regulation of its secretory function?

(a) Adrenal cortex

(b) Adrenal medulla

(c) Thyroid

(d) Testis

Ans b

  1. 50. Which one of the  following is formed by  mesoderm of gastrula?

 

(a)   Central nervous system

 

(b)   Epidermis

 

(c)    Circulatory system

 

(d)    Liver  and pancreas

 

Ans c. Liver and pancreas are endodermal. Central nervous system

 

and Epidermis are ecto dermal.

 

 

  1. Which one of the following increases the uptake of sodium ions and water in

the kidney with simultaneous elimination of potassium ions?

(a) Vasopressin (b) Renin

(c) Parathormone (d) Aldosterone

  1. Consider the following statements:

Parasympathetic nervous system is characterized by

  1. Acetylcholine as neurotransmitter.
  2. ‘Fight or flight’ activities.
  3. Longer preganglionic fibres.
  4. Longer postganglionic fibres.
  5. Arising from cranio-sacral portion.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 1,3 and 5 (d) 2,3 and 5

  1. Match List I (Human hormone) with List II (Target organ) and select the

correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I List II

  1. Cholecystokinin 1. Bone marrow
  2. Erythropoeitin 2. Stomach
  3. Enterogastron 3. Gall bladder

A B C A B C

(a) 2 I 3 (b) I 3 2

(c) 3 2 I (d) 3 1 2

  1. Which one of the following categories of enzymes converts triglycerides into

glycerol and fatty acids?

(a) Hydrolase (b) Lyase

(c) Oxidoreductase (d) Transferase

  1. Consider the following statements with reference to the only ape found in

India i.e. Hylobates hoolock:

  1. In India, it lives only in north-eastern region.
  2. Its arms are more than double the length of its legs measured from hip heel.
  3. It is purely herbivorous.

  –

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?’

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

  1. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Wildlife Sanctuary State

(a) Eturnagaram – Tamil Nadu

(b) Bhagvan Mahavir – Goa

(c) Nandini – Jammu & Kashmir

(d) Narayan Sarovar – Gujarat

  1. The sequence of transfer of electrons during biological oxidation of a

substrate in mitochondrian is

(a) NAD _ Cytochrome a _ Cytochrome c _ O2,

(b) FAD _ Cytochrome c _ Cytochrome b _ NAD _ O2

(c) NAD _ FAD _ Cytochrome b _ Cytochrome c _ Cytochrome a3 _ O2

(d) FAD _ NAD _ Cytochrome c _ Cytochrome a 3 _ O2

  1. Consider the following statements:

Vitamin A deficiency in humans can lead to

  1. atrophy of epithelial cells.
  2. damage to intestinal mucosa.
  3. defects in the dentine of teeth.

Which of the statements given is / are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

  1. Which one of the following is a non-essential amino acid in the case of

human beings?

(a) Arginine (b) Histidine

(c) Leucihe (d) Serine

  1. Which one of the following is the most fundamental characteristic of the

excitatory post-synaptic potential?

(a) Decreasing sodium ions

(b) Incresed permeability to ions

(c) Polarisation of membrane

(d) Incresed loss of potassium ions

Consider the following statements:

  1. Adenosine triphosphate is made up of base adenine, sugar xylose and three

phosphate groups.

  1. Adenosine triphosphate has three ionizable protons in its condensed

phosphate groups.

Which of he statements given above -is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither I nor 2

  1. Hypoprothrombinemia is due to the deficiency of

(a) Vitamine A (b) Vitamine B complex

(c) Vitamine E (d) Vitamine K

  1. Consider the following:
  2. Malate. 2. Succinate
  3. Fumarate

What is the correct sequence of the above metabolites in citric acid cycle?

(a) 1 – 2 – 3 (b) 2 – 1 – 3

(c) 3 – 2 – 1 (d) 2 – 3 – 1

  1. The hormones response are responsible for the “fight-or-flight”

(a) Cortisol and aldosterone

(b) Corticosterone and aldosterone

(c) Aldosterone and nor-adrenalin

(d) Adrenalin and nor-adrenalin

  1. Consider the following statements: .
  2. Chymotrypsinogen is converted into chymotrypsin by trypsin.
  3. Cholecystokinin is secreted by stomach.
  4. Pepsin acts on peptide linkage in which tyrosine and phenylalanine are

involved.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) I and 3 (d) I, 2 and 3

  1. In glycolysis, which’ one of the following is the substrate I for the enzyme

enolase?

(a) Fructose 1-6 biphosphate

(b) 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde

(c) I, 3-biphosphoglyceric acid

(d) 2-phosphoglyceric acid

  1. Consider the following hormones:
  2. Thyrotrophin releasing hormone (TRH)
  3. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
  4. Thyroxine (T 4)
  5. What is the correct sequence of the release of these hormones?

(a) I – 2 – 3 (b) 2 – I – 3

(c) 2 – 3 – I (d) I – 3 – 2

  1. How many fused hydrocarbon rings does the steroid nucleus consist of?

(a) Two (b) Three

(c) Four (d) Six

 

  1. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Perilymph is positively charged and endolymph is negatively charged.

(b) Perilymph and endolymph are positively charged.

(c) Perilymph is negatively charged and endolymph is positively charged.

(d) Perilymph and endolymph are negatively charged.

  1. Consider the following statements:

The tertiary structure of proteins is stabilized by

  1. disulphide linkage
  2. hydrogen bonding
  3. electrostatic bonds between positively and negatively charged groups

Which ‘of the statements give!1 above are correct?

(a) I and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

  1. Consider the following statements:

Pheromones help in

  1. communication within species.
  2. marking the territory.
  3. defence mechanism.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and 2 (b) 2 and 3.

(c) l and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

  1. The axial filament of a mammalian sperm consists of

(a) 9 double peripheral and 2 single central microtubules

(b) 9 single peripheral and 2 double central microtubules

(c) 2 single peripheral and 9 double central microtubules

(d) 2 double peripheral and 9 single central microtubules

  1. Which one of the following is not applicable to the retrogressive

metamorphosis of Ascidian tadpole?

(a) Reduction of size of the pharynx

(b) Dwindling of notochord

(c) Development of sessile character

(d) Shortening of tail

  1. Which one of the following sets is of ectodermal derivative?

(a) Brain, spinal cord, pituitary, thyroid

(b) Brain, spinal cord, liver, pancreas

(c) Brain, spinal cord, pituitary, pineal

(d) Heart, eye, dentine, skeleton

 

  1. Regarding the appearance of the given organs in a tapdole of frog, which

one of the following is the correct sequence?

(a) Mouth, external gill, fore limb, hind limb

(b) Mouth, external gill, hind limb, fore limb

(c) External gill, mouth, hind limb, fore limb

(d) External gill, mouth, fore limb, hind limb

  1. The chorion, originates from

(a) Ectoderm

(b) Endoderm

(c) Extra-embryonic ectoderm

(d) Somatic mesoderm

  1. The third cleavage in the development of frog is

(a) Holoblastic and equatorial

(b) Holoblastic and un equatorial

(c) Vertical and equatorial

(d) Meroblastic and vertical

  1. In mammals, the extra-embryonic structure is composed of

(a) Chorioallantois and trophoblast

(b) Amnion and allantois

(c) Yolk

(d) Yolk and amnion

  1. In which among the following is bidiscoidal placenta present?

(a) Cat (b) Dog

(c) Human (d) Monkey

  1. The placenta in mammals secretes

(a) Progesterone only

(b) Estradiol only

(c) Relaxin and estradiol

(d) Progesterone, estradiol and relaxin

  1. Which one of the following studies strongly supports Neo-Darwinism

theory?

(a) Moletular genetics (b) Paleontology

(c) Comparative anatomy (d) Functional morphology

  1. Expansion of which one of the following regions of brain during evolution is

responsible for the greater intelligence of man?

(a) Allocortex (b) Neocortex

(c) Cerebellum (d) Juxtallocortex

  1. What Was the principal missing element in Darwin’s concept of evolution?

(a) Knowledge of heredity and variation

(b) Concept of missing links (c) Convincing fossil records

(d) Concrete evidence for the operation of Natural Selection

  1. The ineffectiveness of many antibiotics to bacteria today is most closely

associated with

(a) F-plasmid (b) R-plasmid

(c) Catabolite repression (d) Bacterial transformations

  1. The direct evidence on the evolution of horse is provided by the study of

(a) Recapitulation (b) Geographic distribution

(c) Fossils (d) Homology of the limbs

  1. Match List I (Animal) with List II (Geological period) and select the correct

answer using the code given below the lists:

List I

  1. First reptiles
  2. First amphibians
  3. First dinosaurs
  4. First fishes

List II

  1. Ordovician
  2. Devonian
  3. Pennsylvanian
  4. Jurassic
  5. Cretaceous
  6. Triassic

A B C D A B C D

(a) 6 4 3 1 (b) 3 2 6 1

(c) 6 2 3 5 (d) 3 4 6 5

  1. Which one of the following is the vector of Trypanosomiasis?

(a) Tsetse fly (b) Phlebotamus fly.

(c) White fly (d) Fire fly

  1. Which part of the worldo is regarded as the most probable place of origin of

ancestor of humans?

(a) Java-Sumatra (b) China

(c) South Asia (d) South Africa

  1. In the case of frog, the structure known as ‘grey crescent’ is found in

(a) Fertilized egg (b) Unfertilized egg

(c) Brain (d) Eye

  1. Consider the following pairs:
  2. Bombyx mori – Lepidoptera
  3. Tachardia lacca – Hemiptera
  4. Apis indica – Hymenoptera

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) I only (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

  1. Consider the following statements:
  2. India is one of the twelve mega-biodiversity tountries of the world.
  3. The Gulf of Mannar has been recognised on the World Network of Biosphere

Researves by UNESCO.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither I nor 2

  1. Amensalism is a type of population interaction in which

(a) Both the populations are inhibited.

(b) One population is benefited and the other inhibited

(c) One population is inhibited and the other unaffected

(d) Both the populations are benefited

  1. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The vipers have movable upper jaws.

(b) The vipers are viviparous.

(c) The krait has a rounded tail with undivided subcaudals.

(d) In India, six species of cobra are found.

  1. Consider the following Indian fauna:
  2. Elephas maxim us
  3. Equus hemionus khur
  4. Panthera uncia

Which of the above is/are endangered?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

  1. The major component of ‘biological clock’ in higher vertebrates is

(a) Pituitary gland (b) Cerebral cortex

(c) Hypothalamus (d) Medulla oblongata

  1. Which one of the following is the correct sequence qf ecosystems in the order

of decreasing productivity?

(a) Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves

(b) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes

(c) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans

(d) Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands

  1. Histones are rich in

(a) Histidine and alanine

(b) Arginine and lysine

(c) Glutamine and glutamic acid

(d) Alanine and phenylalanine

  1. Match List I (Animal) with List II (Scientific name) and select the correct

answer using the code given below the lists:

List I

  1. Indian fox
  2. Jackal
  3. Jungle cat

List II

  1. Canis aureus
  2. Felis chaus
  3. Vulpes bengalensis

 

A B C A B C

(a) 3 1 2 (b) 3 2 1

(c) 2 1 3 (d) 1 3 2

  1. The lakes with a reduced profundal zone and a highly productive littoral

and sublittoral zones are termed as

(a) Oligotrophic (b) Dystrophic

(c) Eutrophic (d) Mesotrophic

  1. Consider the following statements:
  2. The Grizzled Giant Suirrel (Ratufa macroura) is found in the forest hill

ranges of west and north India.

  1. At present, there are no flying squirrels in Indian wildlife.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both I and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

  1. Consider the following statements:
  2. The secretions of adrenal cortex include estrogens.
  3. Progesterone enhances breast development pregnancy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

  1. Consider the following statements:
  2. The Sambar is the largest of all Indian deer.
  3. The biggest bovid of India is the gaur.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

  1. Which one among the following is the most important factor in Speciation?

(a) Geographic isolation (b) Reproductive isolation

(c) Ethological isolation (d) Ecological isolation

  1. ‘Competitive exclusion’ refers to

(a) Struggle between two species

(b) Vanishing of one species from a habitat

(c) Vanishing of all the species from a habitat,

(d) One species managing resources in one way and the other in another way

  1. Which one of the following insects is to be found in. flour mills?

(a) Trogoderma (b) Tribolium

(c) Plodia (d) Callosobruchus

  1. Match List I (Type of silkworm) with List II (Host plant) and select the

correct answer using the code given below:

List I List II

  1. Bombyx mori 1. Ricinus communis
  2. Attacus ricini 2. Terminalia tomentosa
  3. Antheraea assama 3. Morus alba
  4. Antheraea mylitta 4. Machilus

A B C D A B C D

(a) 2 I 4 3 (b) 3. 1 4 2

(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 4 1 3

  1. Which one of the following is the transparent covering over the eye of

snakes?

(a) Nictitating membrane (b) Brille

(c) Eye lid (d) Cornea

  1. The chief functions of the queen bee substance (oxodecenoic acid) secreted

by the mandibular glands of the queen bee are to .

(a) Induce the larvae to develop into queens and to stimulate the drones during

the queen’s nuptial flight

(b) Promote the transformation of nymphs into drones and to serve as a nutritive

material for the workers

(c) Stimulate ovarian development and ovulation in the queen.

(d) Inhibit ovarian development in workers and to stimulate the drones during

the queen’s nuptial flight

  1. The true pearl oyster, producing pearls of high quality belongs to the genus :

(a) Placuna (b) Pinctada

(c) Mytilus (d) Haliotis

  1. The toxic substance discharged by the blister beetles contains

(a) Oxides of nitrogen (b) Sulphurous compounds

(c) Cantharidine (d) Cyanic acid

  1. The machanism of sex determination in male honey bee is

(a) By the presence of one X-chromosome and two sets of autosomes

(b) By the presence of one Z-chromosome and two sets of autosomes

(c) By the ratio of X-chromosomes to haploid set of chromosomes

(d) By the asexual process of embryonic development

 

  1. Match List I (Disease) with List II (Description) and select the correct

answer using the code given below the lists:

List I

  1. Down’s syndrome
  2. Albinism
  3. Maple syrup urine disease

List II

  1. Congenital absence of tyrosinase
  2. Lack of amino acid decarboxylase
  3. Trisomy of chromosome

A B C A B C

(a) 1 3 2 (b) 3 1 2

(c) 2 1 3 (d) 3 2 1

  1. The Gangetic dolphin differs from the marine dolphin by having

(a) A toothed beak

(b) A well developed eye-sight

(c) Miniature flippers

(d) A paired dorsal fin

  1. The silk moth, Bombyx sp. overcomes the extremes of ambient temperature

by undergoing

(a) Encystment (b) Hibernation

(c) Diapause (d) Aestivation

  1. In forensic study, DNA fingerprinting process is used to determine whether

or not an individual is the parent of a child by

(a) VNTR loci analysis

(b) RFLP analysis

(c) Degenerate oligonucleotides assay

(d) c-DNA analysis

  1. Chloragogen tissue found in earthworms surrounds the

(a) Intestine (b) Gonad

(c) Clitellum (d) Integument

Directions: The following four (4) items consist of two statements, one labelled as the

‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements

carefully ‘and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

  1. Assertion (A) : Mitochondrion contains one double stranded circular DNA.

Reason (R) : DNA carries genes for all the proteins needed for its

functioning,

  1. Assertion (A) : A nucleus taken from a somatic cell and implanted into an

enucleated egg cell of a frog often gives rise to an adult

individual.

Reason (R) : Differentiated donor nucleus could be totipotent.

  1. Assertion (A) : Spontaneous mutation involves base pair substitutions during

DNA replication.

  –

Reason (R) : It is a temperature sensitive mutation and changes the base

pair.

  1. Assertion (A) : Using recombinant DNA technology, desired genes can be

implanted into a bacterium for amplification and expression.

Reason (R) : Any bacterium can carry expression vector.

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