NEET Biology Practice Test Paper 4 by TEACHING CARE online coaching classes

NEET Biology Practice Test Paper 4 by TEACHING CARE online coaching classes

                                                              Section Biology

  1. A cross between two true breeding lines one with dark blue flowers and one with bright

white flowers produces F1 offspring that are light blue.  When the F1 progeny are

selfed a 1:2:1 ratio of dark blue to light blue to white flowers is observed.  What genetic

phenomenon is consistent with these results?

  1. epistasis
  2. incomplete dominance
  3. codominance
  4. inbreeding depression
  5. random mating
  6. Mutations which occur in body cells which do not go on to form gametes can be classified as:
  7. auxotrophic mutations
  8. somatic mutations
  9. morphological mutations
  10. oncogenes
  11. temperature sensitive mutations
  12. What would be the frequency of AABBCC individuals from a mating of two AaBbCc


  1. 1/64
  2. 1/32
  3. 1/16
  4. 1/8
  5. 3/16
  6. 1/4
  7. The stage of meiosis in which chromosomes pair and cross over is:
  8. prophase I
  9. metaphase I
  10. prophase II
  11. metaphase II
  12. anaphase II2
  13. Polyploidy refers to:
  14. extra copies of a gene adjacent to each other on a chromosome
  15. an individual with complete extra sets of chromosomes
  16. a chromosome which has replicated but not divided
  17. multiple ribosomes present on a single mRNA
  18. an inversion which does not include the centromere
  19. A gene showing codominancea. has both alleles independently expressed in the heterozygote
  20. has one allele dominant to the other
  21. has alleles tightly linked on the same chromosome
  22. has alleles expressed at the same time in development
  23. has alleles that are recessive to each other
  24. The phenomenon of “independent assortment” refers to:
  25. expression at the same stage of development
  26. unlinked transmission of genes in crosses resulting from being located on

different chromsomes, or far apart on the same chromosome.

  1. association of an RNA and a protein implying related function
  2. independent location of genes from each other in an interphase cell
  3. association of a protein and a DNA sequence implying related function
  4. Mendel’s law of segregation, as applied to the behavior of chromosomes in meiosis, means


  1. pairing of homologs will convert one allele into the other, leading to separation of the


  1. alleles of a gene separate from each other when homologs separate in meiosis I,

or in meiosis II if there is a single crossover between the gene and the


  1. genes on the same chromosome will show 50% recombination
  2. alleles of a gene will be linked and passed on together through meiosis
  3. Which component of transcribed RNA in eukaryotes is present in the initial transcript but is

removed before translation occurs:

  1. Intron
  2. 3’ Poly A tail
  3. Ribosome binding site
  4. 5’ cap
  5. codons coding for the protein to be produced3
  6. Choose the correct statement about the genetic code.
  7. includes 61 codons for amino acids and 3 stop codons
  8. almost universal; exactly the same in most genetic systems
  9. three bases per codon
  10. some amino acids are coded by multiple codons
  11. all of the above
  12. X-chromosome inactivation
  13. normally takes place in males but not females
  14. is the cause of the Y chromosome being genetically inactive
  15. takes place in humans so that the same X chromosome is inactive in all of the cells

of a female

  1. occurs in fruit flies but not in mammals
  2. results in genetically turning off one of the two X chromosomes in female


  1. DNA ligase is:
  2. an enzyme that joins fragments in normal DNA replication
  3. an enzyme involved in protein synthesis
  4. an enzyme of bacterial origin which cuts DNA at defined base sequences
  5. an enzyme that facilitates transcription of specific genes
  6. an enzyme which limits the level to which a particular nutrient reaches
  7. An Hfr strain of E. coli contains:
  8. a vector of yeast or bacterial origin which is used to make many copies of a

particular DNA sequence

  1. a bacterial chromosome with a human gene inserted
  2. a bacterial chromosome with the F factor inserted
  3. a human chromosome with a transposable element inserted
  4. a bacterial chromosome with a phage inserted
  5. Male to male transmission is a key feature of which pattern of inheritance?
  6. a) Autosomal dominant
  7. b) Autosomal recessive
  8. c) X-linked dominant
  9. d)X-linked recessive
  10. Generation of antibody diversity in vertebrate animals takes place through:
  11. the presence of as many genes in the germ line as there are types of antibodies


  1. infection with bacteria carrying antibody genes
  2. infection with viruses carrying antibody genes
  3. polyploidy in antibody-forming cells
  4. rearrangement of DNA in tissues that go on to produce antibodies
  5. Replication of DNA:
  6. takes place in a “conservative” manner
  7. takes place in a “dispersive” manner
  8. takes place in a “semi-conservative” manner
  9. usually involves one origin of replication per chromosome in eukaryotes
  10. takes place only in the 3’ to 5’ direction
  11. A duplication is:
  12. an exchange between non-homologous chromosomes, resulting in chromosomes

with new genes adjacent to each other.

  1. loss of genes in part of a chromosome
  2. an extra copy of the genes on part of a chromosome
  3. a reversal of order of genes on a chromosome
  4. an extra set of chromosomes in an organism
  5. Which of the following disorders does notshow X-linked inheritance?
  6. a) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
  7. b) Tay-Sachs disease
  8. c) Haemophilia A
  9. d) Haemophilia B
  10. A mutation in a codon leads to the substitution of one amino acid with another. What is the

name for this type of mutation?

  1. nonsense mutation
  2. missense mutation
  3. frameshift mutation
  4. promoter muttion
  5. operator mutation
  6. Mapping of human chromosomes:
  7. has been restricted to the sex chromosomes because of small family sizes
  8. proceeded much more successfully as large numbers of DNA markers became


  1. has determined that the number of linkage groups is about twice the number of


  1. has demonstrated that almost all of the DNA is involved in coding for genes
  2. has shown that there are more genes on the Y than on the X chromosome 6
  3. Homeobox sequences
  4. are present in the genome of many animal species
  5. are found in prokaryotes but not in eukaryotes
  6. were identified as the integration sites for bacterial viruses
  7. represent integration sites for transposable elements
  8. represent the termination signals for transcription
  9. Tracing of a cell lineage during development means that:
  10. the cells giving rise to and derived from a specific cell are known
  11. the sequence of the enhancers for developmental genes is known
  12. the regulatory genes for the organism have been genetically mapped
  13. cell components in the membrane involved in signaling have been isolated
  14. cell components in the nucleus involved in signaling have been isolated
  15. Zinc finger proteins and helix-turn-helix proteins are:
  16. types of DNA-binding proteins

b.involved in the control of translation

c.components of ribosomes

d.part of the hemoglobin in blood cells

e.bound to transfer RNA during replication

  1. Transcriptional activator proteins:
  2. transcribe a messenger off a DNA template
  3. bind to ribosomes to activate the production of specific proteins
  4. are produced during an infection of bacteria by a phage
  5. are essential to function of transfer RNAs during translation
  6. bind regions near a eukaryotic gene and allow an RNA polymerase to

transcribe a gene

25.Differential distribution of substances in the egg most typically results in:

  1. differences in gene expression which may establish a pattern in the embryo as

the cells divide

  1. amplification of specific genes during development

c.development of polyploid tissues

d.loss of specific genes during development

e.dominance of genes derived from the father

  1. Arabidopsis is advantageous for plant genetic research because:
  2. it is commercially important as a food crop
  3. it is an endangered species
  4. it is the closest to humans of any existing plant
  5. it is a small plant with a small genome size which can be raised inexpensively
  6. it is a close relative of corn and results with this species can be applied to problems

in corn

  1. A homeotic mutation is one which:
  2. is present in only one form in an individual
  3. substitutes one body part for another in development
  4. results in development of a tumor
  5. is wild type at one temperature and abnormal at another
  6. leads to increased body size in an organism
  7. Assuming that the level of glucose is low, a mutation in the repressor of the lac operon in E.

coli, preventing binding of the repressor to the operator, should result in:

  1. constitutive expression of the lac operon genes
  2. lack of expression or reduced expression of the lac operon genes under all


  1. expression of the genes only when lactose is present
  2. expression of the genes only when lactose is absent
  3. Assuming that the level of glucose is low, a mutation in the repressor associated with the lac

operon of E. coli which prevents binding of the repressor to lactose should result in:

  1. constitutive expression of the lac operon genes
  2. lack of expression or reduced expression of the lac operon genes under all


  1. expression of the genes only when lactose is present
  2. expression of the genes only when lactose is absent
  3. RFLP analysis is a technique that
  4. uses hybridization to detect specific DNA restriction fragments in genomic DNA
  5. is used to determine whether a gene is transcribed in specific cells
  6. measures the transfer frequency of genes during conjugation
  7. is used to detect genetic variation at the protein level.
  8. is used to amplify genes for producing useful products8

31.Plasmid vectors for cloning

  1. can generally accommodate larger inserts than phage vectors can
  2. grow within bacteria, and are present in bacterial colonies on an agar plate
  3. can accommodate inserts of over 100 kilobases
  4. include centromeres to allow propagation in yeast
  5. burst bacteria and form plaques on a “lawn” of bacteria

32.Simple tandem repeat polymorphisms in humans are most useful for:

  1. solving criminal and paternity cases
  2. reconstructing the relationships of humans and chimps.
  3. estimating relationships of humans and Neanderthals
  4. transferring disease resistance factors into bone marrow cells
  5. estimating matches for blood transfusions

33.The polymerase chain reaction or PCR is a technique that

  1. was used to demonstrate DNA as the genetic material
  2. is used to determine the content of minerals in a soil sample
  3. uses short DNA primers and a thermostable DNA polymerase to replicate

specific DNA sequences in vitro.

  1. measures the ribosome transfer rate during translation
  2. detects the level of polymerases involved in replication

34.Positional cloning refers to:

  1. using a selection procedure to clone a cDNA
  2. cloning a portion of a gene using PCR
  3. isolating a gene by PCR using primers from another species
  4. isolating a gene from a specific tissue in which it is being expressed
  5. mapping a gene to a chromosomal region and then identifying and cloning a

genomic copy of the gene from the region

35.Large quantities of useful products can be produced through genetic engineering involving:

  1. bacteria containing recombinant plasmids
  2. yeast carrying foreign genes
  3. transgenic plants
  4. mammals producing substances in their milk
  5. all of the above9

36.On average, how many fragments would a restriction enzyme which recognizes a specific 4

base sequence in DNA be expected to cleave a  double-stranded bacteriophage with a

genome size of 5,000 bp into?

  1. about 2
  2. about 4
  3. about 20
  4. about 50
  5. about 1250

37.The “sticky ends” generated by restriction enzymes allow:

  1. selection for plasmids lacking antibiotic resistance
  2. easy identification of plasmids which carry an insert
  3. replication of transfer RNA within the bacterial cell
  4. insertion of centromeres into ribosomes lacking them
  5. pieces of DNA from different sources to hybridize to each other and to be

joined together

38.QTL analysis is used to:

  1. identify RNA polymerase binding sites
  2. map genes in bacterial viruses
  3. determine which genes are expressed at a developmental stage
  4. identify chromosome regions associated with a complex trait in a genetic


  1. determine the most rapidly-evolving parts of genes

39.Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the genoypte frequency  of heterozygotes, if the

frequency of the two alleles of the gene being studied are 0.6 and 0.4, will be:

  1. 0.80
  2. 0.64
  3. 0.48
  4. 0.32
  5. 0.16

40.The likelihood of an individual in a population carrying two specific alleles of a human DNA

marker, each of which has a frequency of 0.2, will be:

  1. 0.4
  2. 0.32
  3. 0.16
  4. 0.08
  5. 0.0210

41.A threshold trait is one which:

  1. is expressed on a continuous scale (such as blood pressure)
  2. is present in a few discrete classes, but is influenced by both genetics and the

environment (such as diabetes or schizophrenia)

  1. is caused by only a single gene, with no environmental influence
  2. is present in a very low frequency in the population
  3. is associated with superior survival of the heterozygote
  4. Mitochondrial DNA is advantageous for evolutionary studies because:
  5. it is inherited only through the female parent and thus evolves in a way that

allows trees of relationship to be easily constructed

  1. it is inserted into the X chromosome
  2. it first appeared in humans and is not found in other animals
  3. it evolves more slowly than the genes in the nucleus
  4. it was derived from the globin genes as an extra copy

43.What are the assumptions of Hardy Weinberg equilibrium?

  1. Small population size, random mating, no selection, no migration, no mutation
  2. large population size, random mating, no selection, no migration, no mutation
  3. large population size, random mating, heterozygotes survive the best, no migration, no


  1. large population size, like individuals mate, no selection, no migration, no mutation
  2. large population size, random mating, no selection, migrants enter from other

populations, no mutation

44.Twin studies in humans are useful because:

  1. they allow more refined estimates of chromosome location to be made
  2. twins have a greater likelihood of being heterozygous
  3. they allow improved expression of genes
  4. cloning of genes is facilitated by the presence of extra copies.
  5. they allow genetic as opposed to environmental influences on variation in a

trait to be estimated

45.Which of the following statements about heritability are true?

  1. is a measure of level of gene linkage
  2. is a measure of inbreeding
  3. is a measure of proportion of repeated DNA in an organism
  4. is a measure of the level of heterozygotes in a population
  5. is a measure of the proportion of variation that is due to genetic causes11

46.The allele associated with sickle cell anemia apparently reached a high frequency in some

human populations due to:

  1. random mating
  2. superior fitness of heterozygotes in areas where malaria was present
  3. migration of individuals with the allele into other populations
  4. a high mutation rate at that specific gene
  5. genetic drift

47.An increase in the inbreeding coefficient, F,is likely to result in:

  1. reduced likelihood of heterozygotes being present in a population
  2. higher proportion of genes that show linkage
  3. higher proportion of genes with introns
  4. lower level of difference between proteins in two daughter cells
  5. higher level of difference between RNA molecules in two daughter cells

48.Most new mutations appear to be:

  1. beneficial
  2. neutral or deleterious
  3. present in homozygotes rather than heterozygotes
  4. detectable using allozyme studies (protein electrophoresis)
  5. present within pericentric inversions

49.If the frequency of males affected with an X-linked recessive condition in a human

population is .10 (one in ten), what will be the expected frequency of affected females?

  1. .0001
  2. .001
  3. .02
  4. .01
  5. .05
  6. The following genotypes are found in a population:

AA Aa aa

70 50 20

What are the allele frequencies of A and a?

  1. A = 0.86 and a = 0.14
  2. A = 0.68 and a = 0.32
  3. A = 0.63 and a = 0.36
  4. A = 0.32 and a = 0.68
  5. A = 0.36 and a = 0.63
  6. If Mendel had studied the seven traits using a plant with 12 chromosomes instead 14, in what way would his interpretation have been different?

(a) He could have mapped the chromosome

(b) He would have discovered blending or incomplete dominance

(c) He would not have discovered the law of independent assortment

(d) He would have discovered sex linkage.

  1. Which of the following is a recessive trait in garden pea

(a) Tall stem (b) Wrinkled seed

(c) Coloured seed coat (d) Round seeds

  1. WTien a homozygous plant having red flowers is crossed with a homozygous plant bearing white flowers, the offspring are

(a) All with white flowers

(b) All with red flowers

(c) Half with white flowers

(d) Half with red flowers.

  1. Crossing over occurs during

(a) Pachytene (6) Diplotene

(c) Diakinesis (d) Leptotene.

  1. A cross between a heterozygous individual/Fj hybrid and a recessive parent is a

(a) Monohybrid cross (b) Dihybrid cross (c) Test cross (d) Back cross.

  1. In Mendelian genetics, the dominant character is (a) Wrinkled seeds (b) Yellow colour of pod

(c) Green colour of pod

(d) White flowers.

  1. If two genes are present at the same locus and after interacting with each other produce different effects, the phenomenon is called

(a) Co-dominance (b) Dominance (c) Epistasis (d) None of the above

  1. In human zygote, the male sex is determined by

(a) Good nutrition of the mother

(b) Stronger father than mother

(c) Strength of male sex chromosome

(d) Specific combination of sex chromosomes

  1. Crossing over is

(a) Inversely related to linkage (b) Same as linkage

(c) Same as translocation (d) None of these

  1. Mutation that causes minute changes is

(a) Point mutation

(b) Forward mutation

(c) Backward mutation

(d) Frame shift mutation

  1. Strength of linkage is inversely proportional to distance between the

(a) Chromomeres (b) Genes (c) Telomeres (d) Chromatids

  1. If a group of genes are getting deleted and undergoing some change it is due to

(a) Gene mutation (b) Aneuploidy

(c) Chromosomal mutation (id) Gene modification

  1. XX male and XY female are very rare in humans. They are due to

(a) Genes of Y-chromosome are on X chromosome

(b) Crossing over between X and Y

(c) Non-disjunction of chromosomes

(d) All the above

  1. In sickle-cell anaemia, death occurs when lethal genes are present in

(a) Homozygous dominant state

(b) Homozygous recessive state

(c) Codominant condition

(d) Heterozygous state

  1. Albinism is a congenital disorder resulting from the lack of the enzyme

(a) Catalase (b) Fructokinase

(c) Tyrosinase (d) Xanthine oxidase

  1. Daughters born to haemophiliac father and normal mother could be

(a) Normal (b) Carrier

(c) Haemophiliac (d) All of these

  1. In which of the following diseases, the man has an extra X- chromosome ?

(a) Bleeder’s disease (b) Down’s syndrome

(c) Turner’s syndrome (d) Klinefelter’s syndrome

  1. One allele is called dominant if it expresses itself when

(a) Heterozygous only (b) Homozygous only

(c) Heterozygous or homozygous

(id) Neither of these

  1. Mendel’s law of independent assortment is

(a) Applicable to all genes on all chromosomes

(b) Applicable to all dominant genes

(c) Is applicable when genes are on same chromo- some

(d) Is not applicable when genes are on the same chromosome

  1. One of the following is correct statement

(a) Rfecessive train can only be expressed in homozygous condition

(b) Recessive train can always expressed in heterozygous condition

(c) Dominant trait is expressed in homozygous condition

(d) Dominant trait can not be expressed in heterozygous conditions

  1. Heterozygous purple flower is crossed with recessive white flower. The progeny has the ratio:

(a) 75% purple and 25% white

(b) 50% purple and 50% white

(c) All purple

(d) All white

  1. Superiority of hybrid over parents is

(a) Digantism (b) Lethality (c) Heterosis (d) Dwarfism

  1. Two crosses between the same pair of genotype or phenotypes in which the sources of the gametes are reversed in one cross, is known as

(a) Reverse cross (b) Dihybrid cross

(c) Test cross (d) Reciprocal cross

  1. In a plant, red fruit (R) is dominant over yellow fruit (r) and tallness (T) is dominant over shortness (I). If a plant with RRTt genotype is crossed with a plant that is rrtt

(a) 50% will be tall with red fruit

(b) 75% will be tall with red fruit

(c) all the offspring will be tall with red fruit

(d) 25% will be tall with red fruit

  1. A self-fertilizing trihybrid plant forms

(a) 4 different gametes and 16 different zygotes

(b) 8 different gametes and 16 different zytotes

(c) 8 different gametes and 32 different zygotes

(d) 8 different gametes and 64 different zygotes

  1. Consider the following statements.
    c-DNA libraries are prepared from isolated:
    1. t-RNAs
    2. r-RNAs
    3. m-RNAs
    Which of these statements is/are correct?
    (a) 1 and 2
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 2 and 3
    (d) 3only
  2. The recessive genes located on X-chromosome in humans are always

(a) sub-lethal (b) expressed in males

(c) expressed in females (d) lethal

78 . Given below is a pedigree chart of a family with five children. It shows the inheritance of attached ear lobes as opposed to the free ones. The squares represent the male individuals and circles the female individuals.

which one of the following conclusions drawn is correct ?

(a) The parents are homozygous recessive

(b) The trait is Y-linkcd

(c) The parents are homozygous dominant

(d) The parents are heterozygous

  1. How dosage compensation is achieved in Drosophila?
    (a) One of the X-chromosomes in females in inactivated
    (b) The activity of the single X-chromosome in males is up regulated
    (c) The activity of the two X-chromosomes in females is down regulated
    (d) The activity of the autosomes in females is down regulated
  2. Pre messenger RNA (pre- m-RNA) must be modified before translation because
    (a) Pre-m-RNA contained leader sequence
    (b) pre-m-RNA contained the non-coding sequences (intron) within the coding region
    (c) pre-m-RNA contained methylated G nucleotide
    (d) pre-m-RNA is longer than the gene
  3. Where is the enzyme that catalyzes peptide bonding located?
    (a) Larger sub-unit of the ribosome
    (b) Smaller sub-unit of the ribosome
    (c) Leader region of the m-RNA
    (d) t-RNA
  4. Which one of the following is the first event in eukaryotic translation process during the binding of the m-RNA leader sequences?
    (a) The binding of the m-RNA leader to the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
    (b) The binding of the m-RNA leader to the larger ribosomal sub-unit
    (c) The binding of the m-RNA leader to the polysomal core
    (d) The binding of the m-RNA leader to t-RNA.
  5. For the production of monoclonal antibody, which one of the following cell lines is used?
    (a) Chinese Hamster Ovary (CHO) cells
    (b) Myeloma cells
    (c) Hela cells
    (d) Fibroblast cells
  6. Duchene muscular dystrophy is caused by the presence of:
    (a) a defective gene in X-chromosome
    (b) and extra 18th chromosome
    (c) two X-chromosomes and one Y-chromosome in an individual
    (d) an extra 21st chromosome
  7. Synaptonemal complex helps in:
    (a) gamete formation
    (b) recombination during cell division
    (c) production of enzymes during cell division
    (d) chromosomal movement towards poles
  8. Which one of the following correctly represents the nature of blood in the ABO system of blood groups pertaining to the presence of antigens and antibodies?
    (a) Blood group A – Antibody a and antigen B
    (b) Blood group B – Antigen B and antibody b and antibody a
    (c) Blood group AB – Both antibodies a and b
    (d) Blood group O – No antigens and no antibodies
  9. If the sequence of bases in 6 base pair long palindromic sequence on one side of the axis of symmetry is 5GAA the complete sequence of bases of this palindromic sequence will be:
    (a) 5GAA GAA CTT CTT5
    (b) 5GAA AAG CTT TTC5
    (c) 5GAA AAG GAA AAG5
    (d) 5GAA TTC CTT AAG5
  10. DNA shows hyperchromicity on:
    (a) heating
    (b) cooling
    (c) crystallizing
    (d) lyophilizing
  11. The intervening sequence of ‘gene’ is known as:
    (a) intron
    (b) exon
    (c) cistron
    (d) codon
  12. If a mutation occurs in a gamete it would influence:
    (a) only the particular sex of the progeny, whose gamete and undergone mutation
    (b) only a singled individual
    (c) all successive generation of the parents
    (d) sterility in the progeny
  13. A certain human abnormal individual showing 2 Barr bodies in the somatic cells, would be:
    (a) only a male with one X-chromosome
    (b) only a female with two X-chromosomes
    (c) only a male having two Y-chromosomes
    (d) either a male or a female having three X-chromosomes
  14. The cross-over percentage between linked genes J and M is 20%, J and L is 35%, J and N is 70%, L and K is 15%, M and N is 50% and M and L is 15%.
    Thus the sequence of genes on the chromosome is:
    (a) J, N, M, L, K
    (b) J, M, L, N, K
    (c) J, M, L, K, N
    (d) M, J, L, K, N
  15. If a certain couple shows the probability of having only half of the sons haemophilic and only half of the daughters haemophilic the parents are likely to be:
    (a) haemophilic carrier mother and haemophilic father
    (b) hemophilia carrier mother and normal father
    (c) normal mother and haemophilic father
    (d) haemophilic mother and normal father
  16. Which of the following modifications are necessary for most eukaryotic RNA processing?
    1. Addition of modified nucleotide at the 5’ terminal
    2. Cleavage of long precursor RNA into smaller one
    3. Formulation of bases of 3’ poly (A) tail
    4. Alteration of incorrect bases through proof reading.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below
    (a) l and 2
    (b) 2 and 3
    (c) 1 and 4
    (d) 2 and 4
  17. Initiation of polypeptide chain formation is always brought about at the site of a codon coding for an amino acid called:
    (a) Isoleucine
    (b) cystein
    (c) phenylalanine
    (d) methionine
  18. In case of lac operon when disaccharide enters the cell:
    (a) it binds to the bound-repressor-to-the-operator and the structural genes are transcribed because the RNA polymerase can recognize and bind the transcription initiation site
    (b) it binds to the repressor and structural genes are transcribed because the repressor has an altered conformation, is inactivated and does not bind the operator.
    (c) the membrane protein interacts with the operator and the RNA polymerase can recognize the transcription initiation site
    (d) the membrane protein has an altered conformation and does not interact with the operator, thus leading to the transcription of the structural genes
  19. Which of the following is a mucopolysaccharide?
    (a) Fibrinogen
    (b) y- globulin
    (c) Chitin
    (d) Hyaluronic acid
  20. AIDS-causing HIV identifies its target cells by recognizing:
    (a) low density lipoproteins in cell membranes
    (b) apoproteins in the coated pits of membranes
    (c) gated channels in the membranes
    (d) carbohydrates of glycocalyx
  21. Genetic recombination takes place during:
    (a) prophase of meiotic division-I
    (b) metaphase of meiotic division-II
    (c) prophase of meiotic division-II
    (d) metaphase of meiotic division-I
  22. Consanguinity shows a strong association with which pattern of inheritance?
  23. a) Autosomal dominant
  24. b) Autosomal recessive
  25. c) X-linked dominant
  26. d) X-linked recessive