AIIMS Practice Test Paper 3 Zoology by TEACHING CARE online tuition and coaching classes

AIIMS Practice Test Paper 3 Zoology by TEACHING CARE online tuition and coaching classes. Bold Option is answer.

1. Which of the following structures is composed of DNA and protein?
2. ribosomes
3. Golgi bodies
4. chromosomes
5. smooth endoplasmic reticulum

B

2. Which of the following structures is attached to the nuclear envelope?
3. Golgi body
4. mitochondrion
5. cell membrane
6. endoplasmic reticulum

B

3. Where are the structures that distinguish rough endoplasmic reticulum from smooth endoplasmic reticulum produced?
4. in the nucleolus
5. in the Golgi bodies
6. in the mitochondria
7. in the cell membrane

B

4. Which of the following statements concerning platelets is INCORRECT. Platelets:
5. a) contain DNA
6. b) are roughly disk-shaped
7. c) have little ability to synthesize proteins
8. d) are between 1/2 and 1/3 the diameter of the red cell

Z

5. When a wound occurs in humans, the platelets in the blood activate a substance

which starts the clotting process. The substance which starts the clotting is:

1. a) adenosine
2. b) histamine
3. c) lecithin
4. d) thrombin

Z

6. Multiple Choice: When looking at the cross section of the human tibia, one finds the RED marrow in

the:

1. a) medullary cavity
2. b) cancellous bone
3. c) periosteum
4. d) epiphysis

Z

7. What characteristic of a water molecule accounts for its polarity?
8. its cohesiveness
9. its ability to act as a solvent
10. its unequal sharing of electrons
11. the hydrogen bonding to neighbouring water molecules

Z

8. What is the function of a buffer?
9. to carry oxygen
10. to release energy
11. to catalyze a reaction
12. to maintain a constant pH

Z

9. What substance deactivates antigens?
10. lipids
11. proteins
12. nucleic acids
13. carbohydrates

Z

10. Which of the following is a definition of recombinant DNA?
11. plasmids
12. bacterial DNA
13. DNA which has been cloned
14. DNA from more than one source

B

11. In an experiment to determine the identity of an unknown substance, it is determined that the sample contains 12% adenine, 12% thymine, 38% cytosine and 38% guanine. What is the unknown substance?
12. ATP
13. DNA
14. mRNA
15. nuclease

B

12. Which of the following differentiates DNA from RNA?
13. DNA is linear and RNA is a double helix.
14. DNA has deoxyribose and RNA has ribose.
15. DNA is single-stranded and RNA is double-stranded.
16. DNA is produced during transcription and RNA is produced

during replication.

B

13. The following is a sequence of mRNA bases:

G CU U C U C CU

What sequence of amino acids results after translation occurs?

1. arginine, serine, stop
2. alanine, arginine, stop
3. alanine, serine, proline
4. arginine, arginine, glycine

B

14. Which of the following is an anticodon of a molecule of tRNA carrying isoleucine?
15. A T A
16. A U U
17. T A A
18. U A U

B

15. How many ribosomes are needed for the production of one polypeptide containing 30 amino acids?
16. 1
17. 3
18. 10
19. 30

B

16. Water molecules passing through the cell membrane is an example of which of the following?
17. osmosis
18. exocytosis
19. active transport
20. facilitated transport

B

17. Which of the following would decrease the rate of diffusion of molecules across a semi-permeable membrane?
18. increasing the temperature
19. decreasing the size of the molecules
20. decreasing the concentration gradient
21. increasing the size of the pores in the membrane

B

18. What is the role of maltase when it acts as a catalyst?
19. It denatures maltose.
20. It breaks down high energy phosphate bonds.
21. It increases the energy of activation required in the reaction.

 

1. It speeds up the reaction rate without being used in the reaction.

B

 

19. Lengthening of long bones in humans occurs in a particular area of the bone. This area is called the:
20. a) medullary canal
21. b) cancellous bone
22. c) periosteum
23. d) epiphysis

Z

20. The part of the human brain which is an important relay station for the sensory

impulses and also is the origin of many of the involuntary acts of the eye such as the narrowing of the

pupil in bright light is the:

1. a) hypothalamus
2. b) midbrain
3. c) corpus callosum
4. d) cerebellum

Z

21. In the human brain, body temperature, metabolism, heart rate, sexual development, sleep and the body’s use of fat and water are influenced by this region of the brain. This region of the

brain is the:

1. a) hypothalamus
2. b) midbrain
3. c) corpus callosum
4. d) cerebellum

Z

22. Multiple Choice: In which cerebral lobes is the speech center located? Is it the:
23. a) frontal
24. b) parietal
25. c) temporal
26. d) occipital

Z

23. In most axons, the myelin sheath is interrupted at intervals of about 1 millimeter or more. These interruptions are called the:
24. a) glial
25. b) nodes of Ranvier
26. c) collaterals
27. d) nodes of Babinet

Z

24. How do vitamins function in cells?
25. They act as coenzymes.
26. They catalyze reactions.
27. They provide energy for reactions.
28. They act as substrates in hydrolysis.

Z

25. Which of the following is a cause of the watery feces characteristic of diarrohea?
26. increased gastric secretions
27. decreased activity of the cardiac sphincter
28. decreased movement of chyme into the small intestine
29. high solute concentration of the fecal material in the colon

Z

26. What substance is digested by secretions released by both the salivary glands and the pancreas?
27. fat
28. starch
29. protein
30. maltose

B

27. What is a result of increased peristalsis in the duodenum?
28. decreased production of bile
29. decreased pH in the small intestine
30. decreased absorption of amino acids
31. increased hydrochloric acid secretion in the stomach

Z

28. Which of the following are characteristics of the blood vessel that carries blood from the

arterioles to the venules?

1. thin walls with valves
2. thin walls, one cell layer thick
3. thick walls to withstand pressure
4. a thick middle layer of elastic tissue

Z

29. What would result if the SA node received increased stimulation by the sympathetic nervous system?
30. Heart rate and blood pressure would decrease.
31. Mesenteric arteries and arterioles would dilate.
32. Blood pressure and blood velocity would increase.
33. Production of red blood cells and platelets would increase.

Z

30. During the final stage of cell division, the mitotic apparatus disappears, the

chromosomes become attenuated, the centrioles duplicate and split, the nuclear membrane becomes

reconstituted and the nucleolus reappears. This phase of cell division is known as:

1. a) prophase
2. b) metaphase
3. c) anaphase
4. d) telophase

B

31. Multiple Choice: In cell division, the phase following the metaphas is known as:
32. a) prophase
33. b) anaphase
34. c) telophase
35. d) extophase

B

32. The order of insects which includes beetles is known as:
33. a) Coleoptera
34. b) Orthoptera
35. c) Hymenoptera
36. d) Diptera

Z

33. This major protein component of connective tissue in mammals comprises most of the organic matter of skin, tendons, bones, and teeth, and occurs as fibrous inclusions in most other body structures. Is this material:
34. a) elastin
35. b) collagen
36. c) fatty acids
37. d) keratin

Z

34. Sickle cell anemia and Huntington’s chorea are both:
35. a) virus-related diseases
36. b) bacteria-related diseases
37. c) congenital disorders
38. d) none of the above

B

35. Which of the following describes the location and function of valves found in the circulatory system?
36. found in capillary beds and regulate the diameter of venules
37. found in blood vessels that have low blood pressure and prevent backflow of blood in the heart
38. found in blood vessels where blood is moving the fastest and control blood entering

the capillary beds

1. found in blood vessels carrying blood away from the heart and limit high blood pressure in tissues

Z

36. What would occur if the cilia in the respiratory tract were damaged?
37. Mucus would accumulate.
38. The larynx would stop functioning.
39. Air would become trapped in the lungs.
40. The diaphragm would increase thoracic volume.

Z

 

37. What is transported in the blood as carbaminohemoglobin?
38. oxygen
39. amino acids
40. hydrogen ions
41. carbon dioxide

Z

38. Which of the following occurs during inhalation?
39. The rib muscles relax.
40. The diaphragm contracts.
41. The diaphragm becomes dome-shaped.
42. Pressure in the thoracic cavity increases.

Z

39. The number of mature gametes resulting from meiosis in the female is:
40. a) 1
41. b) 2
42. c) 3
43. d) 4

Z

40. Synapsis and crossing over of chromosomes occurs in which phases of meiosis?
41. a) Interphase
42. b) Prophase
43. c) Meterphase
44. d) Teleophase

B

41. A layer of dead skin cells is found in the:
42. a) subcutaneous tissue
43. b) dermis
44. c) epidermis
45. d) no dead cells are in the skin

Z

42. Glial cells are found in the:
43. a) muscular system
44. b) digestive system
45. c) endocrine system
46. d) nervous system

Z

43.Myelin sheaths are found:

1. a) surrounding tendons
2. b) covering the brain
3. c) covering muscles
4. d) around axons of neurons

Z

44. Which of the following is an INCORRECT statement about the parasympathetic system?
45. a) It increases digestive action.
46. b) It is the fight or flight system.
47. c) slows breathing rate
48. d) establishes resting state

 

Z

 

45. Multiple Choice: Bacteriophage are:
46. a) bacteria
47. b) bacteria precursors
48. c) viruses
49. d) agents which cause the production of bacteria

B

46. Which of the following is NOT a mode of genetic exchange within a bacterial

population?

1. a) conjugation
2. b) transduction
3. c) transformation
4. d) translation

B

47. The blastula develops into the:
48. a) gastrula
49. b) morula
50. c) endoderm
51. d) zygote

Z

48. Tissue differentiation begins at which stage?
49. a) zygote
50. b) morula
51. c) blastula
52. d) gastrula

Z

49. The nervous system develops from which germ layer?
50. a) ectoderm
51. b) mesoderm
52. c) endoderm
53. d) none of the above

Z

50. During inspiration, the diaphragm moves:
51. a) down by contraction
52. b) down by relaxation
53. c) up by contraction
54. d) up by relaxation

Z

51. How does the formation of reduced hemoglobin have a buffering effect in the body?
52. It absorbs oxygen in the lungs.
53. It forms carbaminohemoglobin in the blood.
54. It forms carbaminohemoglobin in the tissue fluids.
55. It reduces the concentration of hydrogen ions in the blood.

Z

52. Why would a neuron be unable to conduct impulses if, after the passage of an action potential,

the sodium-potassium pump no longer functioned?

1. Sodium ions would remain concentrated inside the axon; the outside of the axon would

be positive compared to the inside.

1. Potassium ions would remain concentrated inside the axon; the outside of the axon would

be negative compared to the inside.

1. Sodium ions would remain concentrated outside the axon; the outside of the axon would

be positive compared to the inside.

1. Potassium ions would remain concentrated outside the axon; the outside of the axon would

be negative compared to the inside.

Z

53. How does the presence of the myelin sheath around a neuron increase the speed of impulse conduction?
54. It prevents ion exchange except at the nodes.
55. It transfers ions down the length of the neuron.
56. It acts as an enzyme to speed the reactions of the action potential.
57. It helps to carry ions across the cell membrane during the action potential.

Z

54. Which branch of the nervous system does not have nerves which directly connect to the heart?
55. the central nervous system
56. the peripheral nervous system
57. the sympathetic nervous system
58. the parasympathetic nervous system

Z

55. Which of the following is an effect of an increased secretion of aldosterone on the composition of urine?
56. Urea decreases.
57. Sodium ions increase.
58. Potassium ions increase.
59. Hydrogen ions decrease.

Z

56. Where does sperm production occur?
57. in the epididymis
58. in the vas deferens
59. in the interstitial cells
60. in the seminiferous tubules

Z

57. Which of the following would result if fructose was not present in seminal fluid?
58. Sperm would be less motile.
59. Semen would become acidic.
60. Less sperm would be produced.
61. Less testosterone would be secreted.

Z

58. Reduced secretions from which structure would result in decreased breast development?
59. the endometrium
60. the interstitial cells
61. the anterior pituitary
62. the posterior pituitary

Z

59. Which of the following is a function of estrogen?
60. to initiate menstruation
61. to stimulate the posterior pituitary gland
62. to cause maturation of the corpus luteum
63. to initiate the growth of the endometrium

Z

60. During which phase of the cell cycle are normal components of the

cell synthesized and assembled?

1. a) the M phase
2. b) the G1 phase
3. c) the S phase
4. d) the G2 phase

 

B

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Hints and explainations:

6 The epiphysis is the rounded end of a long bone, at its joint with adjacent bone(s). Between the epiphysis and diaphysis (the long midsection of the long bone) lies the metaphysis, including the epiphyseal plate (growth plate)

19 Cancellous bone, synonymous with trabecular bone or spongy bone, is one of two types of osseous tissue that form bones.

20 The corpus callosum (Latin: tough body), also known as the colossal commissure, is a wide, flat bundle of neural fibers beneath the cortex in the eutherian brain at the longitudinal fissure. It connects the left and right cerebral hemispheres and facilitates interhemispheric communication.

42 Glial cells, sometimes called neuroglia or simply glia, are non-neuronal cells that maintain homeostasis, form myelin, and provide support and protection for the brain’s neurons