Biology Class 11 Multiple Choice Questions, MCQs (Objective Questions) by TEACHING CARE online tuition and coaching classes
Biology Class 11 Multiple Choice Questions, MCQs (Objective Questions) by TEACHING CARE online tuition and coaching classes.
Animal (Animalia) Kingdom: MCQs Quiz – 1
Question 1 |
Who proposed artificial system of classification
A | John Ray | |
B | Lamarck | |
C | Linnaeus | |
D | Wallace | |
Question 2 | ||
Who formed the ‘key’ for identification of animals
A | John Ray |
B | Theophrastus |
C | Goethe |
D | Georges Cuvier |
Question 3 |
Which phylum has a true coelom?
A | Cnidaria | |
B | Mollusca | |
C | Porifera | |
D | Annelida | |
Question 4 | ||
Which organism possesses characteristics of plants and animals?
A | Bacteria |
B | Monera |
C | Euglena |
D | Mycoplasma |
Question 5 |
A fat called blubber could be obtained from
A | Bats | |
B | Porpoises | |
C | Dolphin | |
D | Blue whale | |
Question 6 | ||
Which one of the following phylum is characterized by absence of true coelom?
A | Annelida |
B | Mollusca |
C | Echinodermata |
D | Nematoda |
Question 7 |
Which one of the following pairs of animals comprises ‘jawless fishes’?
A | Guppies and hag fishes | |
B | Lampreys and eels | |
C | Mackerels and Rohu | |
D | Lampreys and hag fishes | |
Question 8 | ||
In a sponge the whole inner surface of the asconoid is lined by
A | Choanocytes |
B | Porocytes |
C | Pinacocytes |
D | Amoebocytes |
Question 9 |
Which one of the following kinds of animals is triploblastic?
A | Corals | |
B | Flat worms | |
C | Sponges | |
D | Ctenophores | |
Question 10 | ||
Which one of the following is not a member of the group Eutheria?
A | Mole |
B | Squirrel |
C | Pangolin |
D | Platypus |
Question 11 |
The ______ are undifferentiated embryonic cells and produce the sex cells as well.
A | Thesocytes | |
B | Myocytes | |
C | Archaeocytes | |
D | Chromocytes | |
Question 12 | ||
Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic?
A | Sponges |
B | Coelenterates (Cnidarians) |
C | Aschelminthes (round worms) |
D | Ctenophores |
Question 13 |
Why do camels have a long neck?
A | more vertebrae | |
B | vertebral plates between adjoining vertebrae | |
C | increase in size of each vertebra | |
D | cartilage pads between vertebra | |
Question 14 | ||
Which one of the following animals shows discontinuous distribution?
A | Green muscles |
B | Bats |
C | Lung fishes |
D | Pacific salmons |
Question 15 |
Which of the followings are egg laying mammals?
A | Insectivores |
B | Monotremes |
C | Marsupials |
D | Bats |
Animal (Animalia) Kingdom: MCQs Quiz – 2
Question 1 |
Which of the following types of fish is eaten usually by humans?
A | Jawless | |
B | Bony | |
C | Cartilaginous | |
D | all of the above | |
Question 2 | ||
Which of the following statements is true?
A | Invertebrates posses a tubular nerve cord |
B | Non chordates have a vertebral column |
C | All chordates are vertebrates |
D | All vertebrates are chordates |
Question 3 |
Which of the following statements is true about Roundworms?
A | Roundworms may reach 5 cm in length. | |
B | They are non-segmented | |
C | They are generally dark-colored. | |
D | They occur only in the soil. | |
Question 4 | ||
Which of the following statement is correct?
A | Platypus lays eggs |
B | Camels have biconcave RBCs |
C | Whales respire by gills |
D | Bats do not fly |
Question 5 |
Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic feature without even a single exception?
A | Mammalia : give birth to young ones | |
B | Reptilia : possess 3-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle | |
C | Chordata : possess a mouth provided with an upper and a lower jaw | |
D | Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous endoskeleton | |
Question 6 | ||
Which of the following reptiles has four chambered heart?
A | Turtle |
B | Sphenodon |
C | King cobra |
D | Crocodile |
Question 7 |
Which of the followings is a diploblastic, radially symmetrical animal?
A | Hydra | |
B | Earthworm | |
C | Roundworm | |
D | Liver fluke | |
Question 8 | ||
Which of the following is non poisonous snake?
A | Krait |
B | Cobra |
C | Viper |
D | Python |
Question 9 |
Which of the following animal is not a vertebrate?
A | Oryctolagus | |
B | Fish | |
C | Sparrow | |
D | Amphioxus | |
Question 10 | ||
Which kind of symmetry occurs in sea anemone?
A | Bilateral |
B | Radial |
C | Asymmetry |
D | None of these |
Question 11 |
In a sponge which of the followings are responsible for maintaining the current of water?
A | Pinacocytes | |
B | Porocytes | |
C | Choanocytes | |
D | Amoebocytes | |
Question 12 | ||
Which is not an insect?
A | Spider |
B | Termite |
C | Mosquito |
D | Ant |
Question 13 |
Which is non poisonous?
A | Centipede | |
B | Scorpion | |
C | Spider | |
D | Crab | |
Question 14 | ||
Which is limbless amphibian?
A | Alytes |
B | Hyla |
C | Ichthyophis |
D | Phlebotomus |
Question 15 |
Cold blooded animals are
A | which have cold blood |
B | who feel cold a lot |
C | who can regulate their temperature |
D | who can not regulate their temperature |
Animal (Animalia) Kingdom: MCQs Quiz – 3
Question 1 |
Which is a living fossil?
A | Coelacanth | |
B | Limulus | |
C | Sphenodon | |
D | All of these | |
Question 2 | ||
Which is a coelenterate?
A | Sea Mouse |
B | Sea Urchin |
C | Sea Pen |
D | Sea cucumber |
Question 3 |
Which animal of the followings belongs to class crustacea?
A | Cockroach | |
B | Cyclops | |
C | Grasshopper | |
D | Mosquito | |
Question 4 | ||
When tail is cylindrical and ventral scales do not extend the entire width of belly the snake is
A | definitely poisonous |
B | can be poisonous or non poisonous |
C | non-poisonous |
D | deadly poisonous |
Question 5 |
Collar cells are general characteristic of
A | Sand worm | |
B | Roundworms | |
C | Coelenterata | |
D | Sponges | |
Question 6 | ||
Common character of all vertebrates without exception is
A | Body divided into head, trunk and tail |
B | Two pairs of limbs |
C | Exoskeleton |
D | Presence of skull |
Question 7 |
What will you look for to identify the sex of the following?
A | Male shark – Claspers borne on pelvic fins | |
B | Female Ascaris – Sharply curved posterior end | |
C | Male frog – A copulatory pad on the first digit of the hind limb | |
D | Female cockroach – Anal cerci | |
Question 8 | ||
What is common between kiwi, penguin and ostrich?
A | They are running birds. |
B | They are flightless birds. |
C | They are migratory birds. |
D | They have four toes. |
Question 9 |
What color is the blood of crayfish?
A | green | |
B | blue | |
C | red | |
D | white | |
Question 10 |
Turtles are
A | Arthropods |
B | Pisces |
C | Reptiles |
D | Molluscs |
Question 11 |
A true coelom is lined on all sides by
A | Ectoderm | |
B | Mesoderm | |
C | Endoderm | |
D | Ectoderm and endoderm | |
Question 12 | ||
Which of the following possesses post anal tail?
A | Spider |
B | Scorpion |
C | Cockroach |
D | Cobra |
Question 13 |
A common feature of tracheae of Cockroach and mammal is that both have
A | Ciliated inner lining | |
B | Non-collapsible walls | |
C | Paired nature | |
D | Origin from head | |
Question 14 | ||
Polymorphism occurs in animals of the class
A | Hydrozoa |
B | Anthozoa |
C | Scyphozoa |
D | Gastropoda |
Question 15 |
The clam nervous system is composed of
A | labial palps |
B | one pair of ganglia |
C | two pairs of ganglia |
D | three pairs of ganglia |
Animal (Animalia) Kingdom: MCQs Quiz – 4
Question 1 |
Phylum that doesn’t have a true coelom is
A | Platyhelminthes | |
B | Annelida | |
C | Echinoderms | |
D | Arthropoda | |
Question 2 | ||
Who wrote the book ‘Systema Naturae’?
A | Lamarck |
B | Darwin |
C | Wallace |
D | Linnaeus |
Question 3 |
Which one of the following statements about certain given animals is correct?
A | Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates | |
B | Round worms (Aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates | |
C | Mollusks are acoelomates | |
D | Insects are pseudocoelomates | |
Question 4 | ||
The radially symmetrical cnidarians have a ______ body in two distinct layers
A | sac-like |
B | bilateral |
C | flattened |
D | symmetrical |
Question 5 |
The cells absent in gastrodermis of Hydra are
A | Gland cells | |
B | Stinging cells | |
C | Nutritive cells | |
D | Nerve cells | |
Question 6 | ||
All birds have
A | omnivorous habit |
B | feathers and can fly |
C | nests to care the babies |
D | calcareous-shelled egg |
Question 7 |
Tapeworm is
A | Digenetic parasite | |
B | Nematode | |
C | Monogenetic parasite | |
D | Annelid | |
Question 8 | ||
Tapeworm does not possess digestive system as it
A | Doesn’t require food |
B | Obtain food through general surface |
C | Does not require solid food |
D | Lives in intestine |
Question 9 |
Sponges are ______ filter feeders.
A | occasional | |
B | terrestrial | |
C | active | |
D | sessile | |
Question 10 | ||
Class bivalvia is characterized by
A | absence of gills |
B | absence of head |
C | coiled shell |
D | presence of tentacles around mouth |
Question 11 |
Silk thread is obtained from silk moth during
A | Nymph state | |
B | Larval state | |
C | Pupal state | |
D | Adult state | |
Question 12 | ||
Silk fibre contains which proteins?
A | Mucin and serine |
B | Fibrin and serine |
C | Collagen and elastin |
D | Fibroin and sericine |
Question 13 |
Reptilian feature of Archaeopteryx is
A | U shaped furcula | |
B | Presence of abdominal ribs | |
C | Feathers with barbules | |
D | Presence of a beak | |
Question 14 | ||
______ is not an example of a cnidarian?
A | Coral |
B | Flatworm |
C | Jellyfish |
D | Hydra |
Question 15 |
“Kala-azar” and “oriental sore” are spread by
A | Sand fly |
B | Bed Bug |
C | Louse |
D | Fruit fly |
Animal (Animalia) Kingdom: MCQs Quiz – 5
Question 1 |
In cephalopod, the brain is formed from the fusion of ______.
A | Spinal cord | |
B | Ganglia | |
C | Eye tissue | |
D | Trochophore | |
Question 2 | ||
Fluke infections are diseases of the _______ in humans.
A | Blood |
B | Bile |
C | Digestive tract |
D | Lungs |
Question 3 |
Radial symmetry is usually associated with
A | lower grade of organization | |
B | creeping mode of life | |
C | aquatic life | |
D | sedentary mode of life | |
Question 4 | ||
Male mosquitoes usually feed on
A | Garbage |
B | Human blood |
C | Flower sap |
D | All of the above |
Question 5 |
Ichthyophis is a
A | Worm blooded | |
B | Limbless reptile | |
C | Mammal | |
D | Limbless amphibian | |
Question 6 | ||
Pupa occurs in the life cycle of
A | Blatta |
B | Mosquito |
C | Housefly |
D | Periplaneta |
Question 7 |
Pneumatic bones are expected to be found in
A | Flying fish | |
B | Whale | |
C | Tadpole of frog | |
D | Pigeon | |
Question 8 | ||
Peripatus is a connecting link between
A | Coelenterata and Porifera |
B | Ctenophora and Platyhelminthes |
C | Mollusca and Echinodermata |
D | Annelida and Arthropoda |
Question 9 |
The osculum is an excretory structure in
A | Star fish | |
B | Hydra | |
C | Silver fish | |
D | Sponge | |
Question 10 | ||
Ornithorhynchus is a
A | fossil bird |
B | flightless bird |
C | connecting link between reptiles and birds |
D | mammal |
Question 11 |
In which one of the following the genus name, its two characters and its class/phylum are correctly matched?
Genus name | Two characters | Class/Phylum | ||||||
1 | Aurelia | (a) Cnidoblasts | Coelenterata | |||||
(b) Organ level of organization | ||||||||
2 | Ascaris | (a) Body segmented | Annelida | |||||
(b) Males and females distinct | ||||||||
3 | Salamandra | (a) A tympanum represents ear | Amphibia | |||||
(b) Fertilization is external | ||||||||
4 | Pteropus | (a) Skin possesses hair | Mammalia | |||||
(b) Oviparous | ||||||||
A | 1 | |||||||
B | 2 | |||||||
C | 3 | |||||||
D | 4 | |||||||
Question 12 | ||||||||
Bed Bugs contribute to the spread of
A | Typhoid |
B | Yellow fever |
C | Typhus |
D | Trench fever |
Question 13 |
Annelids are called ______ worms.
A | Parasitic | |
B | Segmented | |
C | Flat-bodied | |
D | Acoelomate | |
Question 14 | ||
Animals are motile because they have
A | Metabolism |
B | Energy |
C | Both muscle fibers and nerve fibers |
D | Legs or wings |
Question 15 |
Echolocation is usually associated with
A | Rats |
B | Birds |
C | Bats |
D | Monkeys |
Animal (Animalia) Kingdom: MCQs Quiz – 6
Question 1 |
Insect mouthparts are adapted for different functions in different species. Mouthparts of houseflies are used for
A | Siphoning | |
B | Piercing and sucking | |
C | Sponging and lapping | |
D | Biting and chewing | |
Question 2 | ||
Earthworms eliminate cellular wastes and excess water through excretory tubules called ______.
A | Nephridia |
B | Flame cells |
C | Coelom |
D | Gizzard |
Question 3 |
In many animals the rapid change from the immature organism to the adult (change from larva to adult in insects) means
A | Cephalization | |
B | Molting | |
C | Metamorphosis | |
D | Endothermy | |
Question 4 | ||
Sharks, skates, and rays are also called ______ fishes.
A | Jawless |
B | Bony |
C | Cartilaginous |
D | Freshwater |
Question 5 |
In planarians water enters the body by ______.
A | osmosis | |
B | contractile vacuoles | |
C | flame cells | |
D | active transport | |
Question 6 | ||
Animals, floating and drifting on the surface of water are ______.
A | Benthos |
B | Pelagic |
C | Plankton |
D | Neritic |
Question 7 |
A phenomenon when parasite parasitizes themselves is known as
A | Hyperparasitism | |
B | Parasitoids | |
C | Monoxenous parasitism | |
D | Polyxenous parasitism | |
Question 8 | ||
Air bladder is present in
A | Chondrichthyes |
B | Star fishes |
C | Actinopterygii |
D | Flying fishes |
Question 9 |
All flat worms differ from all round worms in having
A | Triploblastic body | |
B | Solid mesoderm | |
C | Bilateral symmetry | |
D | Metamorphosis in the life history | |
Question 10 | ||
The cross section of the body of an invertebrate is given below. Identify the animal which has this body plan.
A | Round worn |
B | Planaria |
C | Earthworm |
D | Cockroach |
Question 11 |
Which one of the following groups of three animals each is correctly matched with their one characteristic morphological feature?
Animals | Morphological feature | |||
(1) | Cockroach, Locust Taenia | Metameric segmentation | ||
(2) | Liver fluke, Sea anemone, Sea cucumber | Bilateral symmetry | ||
(3) | Centipede, Prawn, Sea urchin | Jointed appendages | ||
(4) | Scorpion, Spider, Cockroach | Ventral solid central nervous system | ||
A | Option (1) | |||
B | Option (2) | |||
C | Option (3) | |||
D | Option (4) | |||
Question 12 | ||||
Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of phylum Annelida?
A | Ventral nerve cord |
B | Closed circulatory system |
C | Segmentation |
D | Pseudocoelom |
Question 13 |
Which one of the following is the true description about an animal concerned?
A | Cockroach – 10 pairs of spiracles (2 pairs on thorax and 8 pairs on abdomen) | |
B | Earthworm – The alimentary canal consists of a sequence of pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, gizzard and intestine | |
C | Frog – Body divisible into three regions – head, neck and trunk | |
D | Rat – Left kidney is slightly higher in position than the right one | |
Question 14 | ||
Phylum mollusca can be distinguished from other invertebrates by the presence of
A | Bilateral symmetry and exoskeleton |
B | A mantle and gills |
C | Shell and non-segmented body |
D | A mantle and non-segmented body |
Question 15 |
Consider the following four statements (a – d) about certain desert animals such as kangaroo rat.
(a) They have dark colour and high rate of reproduction and excrete solid urine
(b) They do not drink water, breathe at a slow rate to conserve water and have their body covered with thick hairs
(c) They feed on dry seeds and do not require drinking water
(d) They excrete very concentrated urine and do not use water to regulate body temperature.
Which two of the above statements for such animals are true?
A | (a) and (b) |
B | (c) and (d) |
C | (b) and (c) |
D | (c) and (a) |
Animal (Animalia) Kingdom: MCQs Quiz – 7
Question 1 |
Order Rhynchocephalia consists of
A | Tuataras | |
B | Lizards and snakes | |
C | Turtles and tortoises | |
D | Crocodiles, alligators, caimans | |
Question 2 | ||
Cnidarians having cells called cnidocytes, contain organelles known as ______.
A | Polymorphism |
B | Nematocysts |
C | Hermaphroditism |
D | None of these |
Question 3 |
The metamorphosis of insects appears to be regulated through
A | Thyroxine | |
B | Haemolymph | |
C | Ecdysone | |
D | All the above | |
Question 4 | ||
Which one of the following is oviparous?
A | Elephant |
B | Flying fox |
C | Platypus |
D | Whale |
Question 5 |
Cold-blooded animals fall into which category?
A | Ectotherms | |
B | Psychrotherms | |
C | Endotherms | |
D | Thermophiles | |
Question 6 | ||
Radula is found in
A | Pila sp. |
B | Chiton sp. |
C | Lamellidens sp. |
D | Pinctada sp. |
Question 7 |
Cysticercus stage is formed in
A | Taenia | |
B | Plasmodium | |
C | Leishmania | |
D | Wuchereria | |
Question 8 | ||
One example of animals having a single opening to the outside that serves both as mouth as well as anus is
A | Fasciola |
B | Octopus |
C | Asterias |
D | Ascidia |
Question 9 |
Ornithorhynchus is an example of :
A | Dinosaur | |
B | Monotreme mammal | |
C | Marsupial mammal | |
D | Eutherian mammal | |
Question 10 | ||
Phylogenetic classification is based on
A | External similarity |
B | Common evolution |
C | Habit and habitat |
D | Utilitarian system |
Question 11 |
Radial symmetry occurs in which set?
A | Echinodermata and Coelenterata | |
B | Porifera and Coelenterata | |
C | Mollusca and Arthropoda | |
D | Platyhelminthes and Coelenterata | |
Question 12 | ||
Taxonomically a species is
A | A group of evolutionary related populations |
B | Population having same evolutionary basis |
C | Category to which most taxonomic information is attached |
D | Fundamental unit is phylogenetic history of organisms |
Question 13 |
Column I contains larval stages and Column II contains the group to which it belongs. Match them correctly and choose the right answer from the options given below:
Column – I | Column – II | |||
A | Planula | p | Annelida | |
B | Tornaria | q | Mollusca | |
C | Trochophore | r | Arthropoda | |
D | Bipinnaria | s | Chordata | |
E | Glochidium | t | Echinodermata | |
u | Coelenterata | |||
A | A = u, B = s, C = p, D = t, E = q | |||
B | A = q, B = t, C = p, D = s, E = u | |||
C | A = t, B = s, C = r, D = q, E = p | |||
D | A = s, B = r, C = q, D = p, E = t | |||
Question 14 | ||||
Which one of the following statements is correct?
A | Germ layers are tissue layers in the embryos of all animals except sponges. |
B | Germ layers include ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm. |
C | Flatworms have three germ layers whereas cnidarians and ctenophores have two. |
D | All of these are correct. |
Question 15 |
The figure shows four animals (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the correct answer with respect to a common characteristic of two of these animals.
(a) | (b) | (c) | (d) | |||||
A | (a) and (d) have cnidoblasts for self-defence | |||||||
B | (c) and (d) have a true coelom | |||||||
C | (a) and (d) respire mainly through body wall | |||||||
D | (b) and (c) show radial symmetry | |||||||
Animal (Animalia) Kingdom: MCQs Quiz – 8
Question 1 |
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
A | Viviparity is the reproductive pattern shown by most mammals | |
B | Viviparity occurs primarily in salamanders and caecilians. | |
C | In viviparity, a shell does not form around the egg. | |
D | Viviparity is not found in species of lizards and snakes. | |
Question 2 | ||
Which one of the following statements is stated incorrectly regarding cartilaginous fishes?
A | Cartilaginous fishes have sense organs. |
B | Most cartilaginous fishes have color vision. |
C | Teeth-like placoid scales are found on the skin of cartilaginous fishes. |
D | In cartilaginous fishes, gas exchange occurs in the gills. |
Question 3 |
Which statement is correct regarding reptiles, birds, and mammals?
A | Evolved from a common ancestor | |
B | Embryos are surrounded by a fluid-filled sac called amnion | |
C | Outer covering is largely watertight. | |
D | All of the above | |
Question 4 | ||
Which one of the following characteristics is NOT a shared by birds and mammals?
A | A backbone and internal skeleton |
B | Breathing using lungs |
C | Viviparity |
D | Warm blooded nature |
Question 5 |
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
A | Radial symmetry is displayed by sea anemone and aquatic animal. | |
B | Fasciola hepatica is also known as the sheep liver fluke. | |
C | Triploblastic animals are usually bilaterally symmetrical | |
D | Mesoglea is present in between ectoderm and endoderm in Obelia | |
Question 6 | ||
Which one of the followings belongs to platyhelminthes?
A | Plasmodium |
B | Trypanosoma |
C | Schistosoma |
D | Wuchereria |
Question 7 |
Radial symmetry is generally exhibited by which animals?
A | Which are attached with substratum | |
B | Which are aquatic | |
C | Which have ciliary feeding | |
D | Which have one opening of alimentary canal | |
Question 8 | ||
Tachyglossus is a connecting link between
A | Reptiles and Birds |
B | Amphibians and Reptiles |
C | Birds and Mammals |
D | Reptiles and Mammals |
Question 9 |
The scientific name of Asian tiger mosquito
A | Aedes aegypti | |
B | Aedes albopictus | |
C | Aedes taeniorhynchus | |
D | Aedes albolineatus | |
Question 10 | ||
Water-Vascular’ system is found in
A | Sea-anemone |
B | Sea-pen |
C | Sea-cucumber |
D | Sea-horse |
Question 11 |
Cell tissue grade of organization occurs in
A | Platyhelminthes | |
B | Sponges | |
C | Protozoa | |
D | Coelenterata | |
Question 12 | ||
Swarming generally occurs in
A | Pyrilla |
B | Mosquito |
C | House fly |
D | Locust |
Question 13 |
Animals having a built in thermostat to maintain constant body temperature are known as
A | Biothermic | |
B | Poikilothermic | |
C | Oligothermic | |
D | Homeothermic | |
Question 14 | ||
Which one of the followings in birds indicates their reptilian ancestry?
A | Eggs with a calcareous shell |
B | Scales on their hind limbs |
C | Four-chambered heart |
D | Two special chambers crop and gizzard in their digestive tract |
Question 15 |
______ are devoid of respiratory, excretory and circulatory organs.
A | Threadworms |
B | Sponges |
C | Tapeworms |
D | Liver fluke |
Animal Tissue – 01
Question 1 |
An example of merocrine gland is______.
A | Sebaceous gland | |
B | Pineal gland | |
C | Salivary gland | |
D | Mammary gland | |
Question 2 | ||
Antigens are present in______.
A | Cell surface |
B | Cell cytoplasm |
C | Nuclear membrane |
D | Plasma |
Question 3 |
ATPase enzyme needed for muscle contraction is located in______.
A | Actinin | |
B | Troponin | |
C | Myosin | |
D | Actin | |
Question 4 | ||
Basement membrane is derived from______.
A | Ectoderm |
B | Endoderm |
C | Epidermis |
D | Epidermis and connectile tissue |
Question 5 |
Blood cells that transport oxygen within the body are the ______.
A | Plasma | |
B | Erythrocytes | |
C | Platelets | |
D | Leukocytes | |
Question 6 | ||
Bone acts as a reservoir for which of the following elements?
A | Nitrogen |
B | Carbon |
C | Calcium |
D | Hydrogen |
Question 7 |
Bone marrow occurs in______.
A | Ribs | |
B | Ribs, sternum | |
C | Ribs, cranium | |
D | Ribs, sternum, cranium | |
Question 8 | ||
Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiation than normal cells because they are______.
A | Starved of nutrition |
B | Different in structure |
C | Non dividing |
D | Undergo rapid division |
Question 9 |
Cells lining the blood capillaries are called______.
A | Oxyntic cells | |
B | Endothelial cells | |
C | Parietal cells | |
D | Haemocytes | |
Question 10 | ||
Chemically an antibody is______.
A | Nucleoprotein |
B | Lipid |
C | Carbohydrate |
D | Protein |
Question 11 |
Connective tissue mainly contains______.
A | Actin | |
B | Reticulin | |
C | Collagen | |
D | Elastin | |
Question 12 |
Connective tissue originates from______.
A | Endoderm |
B | Ectoderm |
C | Mesoderm |
D | Endo-mesoderm |
Question 13 |
Contractile protein of muscle is______.
A | Tubulin | |
B | Myosin | |
C | Actin | |
D | Tropomycin | |
Question 14 | ||
Ends of long bones have______.
A | Calcified cartilage |
B | Elastic cartilage |
C | Hyaline cartilage |
D | Fibrous cartilage |
Question 15 |
Ends of two bones are connected by______.
A | Muscles | |
B | Tendons | |
C | Ligaments | |
D | Cartilage | |
Question 16 | ||
Which covers cartilage?
A | Pericardium |
B | Perichondrium |
C | Perineurium |
D | Periosteum |
Question 17 |
Which glands secrete hormones directly into the extracellular space?
A | Endocrine glands | |
B | Apocrine gland | |
C | Merocrine gland | |
D | None of the above | |
Question 18 | ||
Which is coiled tubular gland?
A | Villi |
B | Sebaceous |
C | Sweat gland |
D | Testes |
Question 19 |
Which is not correctly matched?
A | Liver-Kupffer cells | |
B | Pancreas-Glisson‘s capsule | |
C | Kidney-nephrons | |
D | Testis-seminiferous tubules | |
Question 20 | ||
Which of the following has slowest growth rate?
A | Connective tissue |
B | Epithelial tissue |
C | Nervous tissue |
D | None of these |
Animal Tissue – 02
Question 1 |
Epithelial tissues arise from______.
A | Ectoderm | |
B | Endoderm | |
C | Mesoderm | |
D | All the above | |
Question 2 | ||
Erythrocytes of adult rabbit and other mammals are formed in______.
A | Kidney |
B | Liver |
C | Spleen |
D | Bone marrow |
Question 3 |
Fibrous tissue which connects bones is______.
A | Connective tissue | |
B | Tendon | |
C | Adipose tissue | |
D | Ligament | |
Question 4 | ||
Four healthy people in their twenties got involved in injuries resulting in damage and death of a few cells Of the following, which cells are least likely to be replaced by new cells?
A | Osteocytes |
B | Liver cells |
C | Neurons |
D | Malpighian layer of the skin |
Question 5 |
From which embryonic layer develops the kidney______.
A | Meso-endoderm | |
B | Mesoderm | |
C | Endoderm | |
D | Ectoderm | |
Question 6 | ||
Functional unit of Kidney is______.
A | Glomerulus |
B | Henley’s loop |
C | Nephorn |
D | Pelvis |
Question 7 |
Glands are composed of which of these tissue types?
A | Epithelium | |
B | Connective | |
C | Muscle | |
D | Nervous | |
Question 8 | ||
Ground substance of connective tissue is mainly made up of______.
A | Monosaccharides |
B | Phospholipids |
C | Lipids |
D | Mucopolysaccharides |
Question 9 |
Haversian canals are found in______.
A | Ascon type simple sponge | |
B | Long bone of rat | |
C | Internal ear of mammals | |
D | Spinal cord of vertebrates | |
Question 10 | ||
Haversian systems are found in the bones of______.
A | Panther |
B | Pigeon |
C | Python |
D | Pipe fish |
Question 11 |
In frog stratum corneum of skin contains______.
A | Living, nucleated, columnar cells | |
B | Living, non nucleated. flattered cells | |
C | Dry, non nucleated. flattened cells containing keratin | |
D | Non living, nucleated, columnar cells | |
Question 12 | ||
Intrcalated discs are found in______.
A | Between neurons |
B | In cardiac muscles |
C | At the junction of muscles and nerves |
D | In striped muscles |
Question 13 |
Large number of mitochondria are found in______.
A | Thigh muscle | |
B | Cardiac muscle | |
C | Breast bone of bird | |
D | All of the above | |
Question 14 | ||
Larynx and trachea contain______.
A | Hyaline cartilage |
B | Xiphoid cartilage |
C | Solid bone |
D | Cartilage bone |
Question 15 |
Longest smooth muscles are found in______.
A | Legs of athletes | |
B | Abdomen | |
C | Uterus of pregnant women | |
D | Back muscles | |
Question 16 | ||
Which of the following is NOT a function of epithelial tissue?
A | Covers surfaces |
B | Secretion and absorption. |
C | Support of the body |
D | Lining of the digestive tract |
Question 17 |
Which of the following substance, if introduced into the blood stream would cause coagulation of blood at the site of its introduction?
A | Thromoboplastin | |
B | Fibrinogen | |
C | Heparin | |
D | Prothrombin | |
Question 18 | ||
Which one of the following contains the largest quantity of extracellular material?
A | Striated muscle |
B | Areolar tissue |
C | Stratified epithelium |
D | Myelinated nerve fibres |
Question 19 |
Which protein occurs in the matrix of cartilage?
A | Ossein | |
B | Casein | |
C | Chondrin | |
D | Actin | |
Question 20 |
Without which corpuscles blood clotting is not possible______.
A | Erythrocytes |
B | Thrombocytes |
C | Plasmocytes |
D | Leucocytes |
Animal Tissue – 03
Question 1 |
Mammary gland is a modified______.
A | Endocrine gland | |
B | Ecrine gland | |
C | Merocrine gland | |
D | Apocrine gland | |
Question 2 | ||
Mast cells occur in______.
A | Nervous tissue |
B | Connective tissue |
C | Epithelial tissue |
D | Skeletal tissue |
Question 3 |
Mast cells of connective tissue contain______.
A | Vasopressin and relaxin | |
B | Heparin and histamine | |
C | Heparin and calcitonin | |
D | Serotonin and melanin | |
Question 4 | ||
Myoglobin is found in______.
A | White fibre |
B | Red fibre |
C | Yellow fibre |
D | All of them |
Question 5 |
Myoglobin occurs in______.
A | Liver | |
B | Blood | |
C | Muscles | |
D | Spleen | |
Question 6 |
The junction of two neurons is called
A | Synapse |
B | Relay |
C | Synapsis |
D | Conduction zone |
Question 7 |
New blood cells are formed in ______.
A | Adipose cells | |
B | Bone marrow | |
C | Liver | |
D | Matrix | |
Question 8 | ||
Notochord develops from embyronic layer______.
A | Ectoderm |
B | Mesoderm |
C | Endodem |
D | Both (A) and (B) |
Question 9 |
Oesophagus, stomach and intestine are lined with______.
A | Transitional epithelium | |
B | Striated columnar epithelium | |
C | Simple columnar epithelium | |
D | Simple squamous epithelium | |
Question 10 | ||
Processes of osteoblasts are called______.
A | Dendrite |
B | Lamella |
C | Canaliculae |
D | Haversian canal |
Question 11 |
Pseudo-stratified epithelium is present in
A | Kidney | |
B | Urinary bladder | |
C | Larynx | |
D | Trachea | |
Question 12 | ||
RBC was kept in a solution, in few minutes it got burst, the solution was______.
A | Hypertonic |
B | Isotonic |
C | Hypotonic |
D | Cane sugar solution |
Question 13 |
Red pulp and white pulp are histological structure found in______.
A | Tooth | |
B | Spleen | |
C | Bone | |
D | Skeletal muscle | |
Question 14 | ||
Transitional epithelium is found in
A | Urinary bladder |
B | Larynx |
C | Trachea |
D | Kidney |
Question 15 |
Sarcolemma is a membrane found over______.
A | Nerve libre | |
B | Cardiac muscle | |
C | Muscle libre | |
D | Heart | |
Question 16 | ||
Sarcomere is the distance between______.
A | Z line and A band |
B | Two Z lines |
C | I band and H zone |
D | A and I bands |
Question 17 |
Schwann cell is found around______.
A | Axon | |
B | Cyton | |
C | Dendrite | |
D | Dendron | |
Question 18 |
Secretion of sebaceous gland is______.
A | Holocrine |
B | Apocrine |
C | Ecrine |
D | Merocrine |
Question 19 |
The structural and functional unit of the striated muscle fibre is called
A | Z-band | |
B | Myofibril | |
C | Sarcoplasm | |
D | Sarcomere | |
Question 20 | ||
The efferent process of neuron is called:
A | Dendrite |
B | Axon |
C | Cyton |
D | Dendron |
Animal Tissue – 04
Question 1 |
Skeletal muscles are______.
A | Endodermal in origin | |
B | Ectodermal in origin | |
C | Mesodermal in origin | |
D | All of them | |
Question 2 | ||
Smooth muscles are______.
A | Involuntary, spindle shaped, uninucleated, tapering |
B | Voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical |
C | Involuntary, cylindrical, multinucleate |
D | Voluntary, branched, uninucleate |
Question 3 |
Stratum germinativum is derived from______.
A | Flat cells | |
B | Ciliated cells | |
C | Columnar cells | |
D | Cuboidal cells | |
Question 4 | ||
The longitudinal channels of bone are called:
A | Bone marrow |
B | Haversian canals |
C | Marrow cavity |
D | Lacunae |
Question 5 |
Striated muscles occur in______.
A | Urinary bladder | |
B | Alimentary canal | |
C | Skeletal muscles | |
D | None of these | |
Question 6 | ||
The cells primarily involved in immune mechanism are______.
A | Eosinophils |
B | Thrombocytes |
C | Lymphocytes |
D | Erythrocytes |
Question 7 |
The white fibres are chemically formed of
A | Actin | |
B | Collagen | |
C | Myosin | |
D | Elastin | |
Question 8 | ||
The cells that line the tubules of the kidneys are ______.
A | Flat |
B | Ciliated |
C | Columnar |
D | Cuboidal |
Question 9 |
The functional unit of contractive system in striated muscle is______.
A | Cross bridges | |
B | Myofibril | |
C | Sarcomere | |
D | Z-band | |
Question 10 | ||
The junction of an axon and dendrite is called______.
A | Relay |
B | Synapse |
C | Conduction zone |
D | Cyton |
Question 11 |
The plasma without fibrinogen and other clotting factors is called:
A | Blood | |
B | Serum | |
C | Anti-serum | |
D | Lymph | |
Question 12 | ||
The most appropriate definition for neuroglial cells is that they are______.
A | Nonsensory supporting cells |
B | Secretory cells |
C | Sensory cells |
D | Sensory and supporting cells |
Question 13 |
The muscles in the eye associated with pupil are______.
A | Unstriated and involuntary | |
B | Striated and voluntary | |
C | Striated and involuntary | |
D | Unstriated and voluntary | |
Question 14 | ||
The receptors found in the muscles, tendons and joints are______.
A | Teloreceptiors |
B | Proprioceptors |
C | Interoceptors |
D | Thermoreceptors |
Question 15 |
Which one of the following is largest in size
A | Monocyte | |
B | Basophil | |
C | Lymphocyte | |
D | Neutrophil | |
Question 16 | ||
This is not the cell of areolar tissue______.
A | Macrophage |
B | Schwann cell |
C | Plasma cell |
D | Adipose cell |
Question 17 |
This one is the characteristic of epithelial tissues.
A | These cells never produce glands | |
B | These cells have a rapid rate of cell division | |
C | These tissues are highly vascularised | |
D | Large intercellular spaces are seen between the cells. | |
Question 18 | ||
Transitional epithelium occurs in______.
A | Kidney |
B | Vein |
C | Renal pelvis and ureter |
D | Larynx |
Question 19 |
The basic contractile unit of muscle is ______.
A | Sarcomere | |
B | Myofibril | |
C | Z-band | |
D | H-band | |
Question 20 | ||
Nissl’s granules are found in ______ cells.
A | Nerve |
B | Cartilage |
C | Muscle |
D | Bone |
Cells: The basic unit of life – MCQ Quiz – 1
Question 1 |
Cell was discovered by
A | Leeuwenhoek | |
B | Robert Hooke | |
C | Robert Swanson | |
D | Robert Brown | |
Question 2 | ||
The spherical structured organelle that contains the genetic material is
A | Cell walls |
B | Ribosomes |
C | Nucleus |
D | Mitochondria |
Question 3 |
Protoplasm found inside the nucleus is known as
A | Amyloplast | |
B | Nucleoplasm | |
C | cytoplasm | |
D | Elaioplast | |
Question 4 | ||
Which of the following statements are true about Endoplasmic Reticulum? (a) Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum makes lipids. (b) It is also called the control center of the cell. (c) It processes carbohydrates. (d) It modifies chemicals that are toxic to the cell.
A | (a), (b) and (c) |
B | (a), (c) and (d) |
C | only (a) and (d) |
D | all are correct |
Question 5 |
Prokaryotic genetic system has
A | DNA but no histones | |
B | Both DNA and histones | |
C | Neither DNA nor histones | |
D | Either DNA or histones | |
Question 6 | ||
Which of the following statements are true about Eukaryotes? (a) They are cells with a nucleus. (b) They are found both in humans and multicellular organisms. (c) Endoplasmic reticulum is present in Eukaryotes. (d) They have chemically complexed cell wall.
A | (a), (b) and (c) |
B | (a), (c) and (d) |
C | (a), (b) and (d) |
D | all are correct |
Question 7 |
A genophore (nucleoid) consists of
A | Histone and RNA | |
B | A single double stranded DNA | |
C | A single stranded DNA | |
D | Histone and non-histone | |
Question 8 | ||
Which one of the following organelles digests the old organelles that are no longer useful to the cells?
A | Ribosomes |
B | Mitochondria |
C | Lysosomes |
D | Chromatin |
Question 9 |
Plasmodesmata are located in narrow areas of _______.
A | Cell walls | |
B | Protoplasm | |
C | Cellulose | |
D | Nuclei | |
Question 10 | ||
Cell sap is a
A | Living content of the cell |
B | Non living content of the vacuole |
C | Non-living content of the protoplasm |
D | Living content of the cytoplasm |
Question 11 |
What do prokaryotic cells lack?
A | Cell membrane | |
B | Cytoplasm | |
C | Cell wall | |
D | membrane-bound nucleus | |
Question 12 | ||
Which of the following is an example of cell devoid of nuclear membrane and mitochondria is
A | Bacterial cell |
B | Sperm |
C | Protist |
D | Sponge cell |
Question 13 |
Lampbrush chromosomes are seen in
A | Prophase | |
B | Mitotic metaphase | |
C | Mitosis | |
D | Meiotic prophase | |
Question 14 | ||
Which one of the following is not considered as a part of the endomembrane system?
A | Vacuole |
B | Lysosome |
C | Golgi complex |
D | Peroxisome |
Question 15 |
Animal cell differs from plant cells in possessing
A | Plastid |
B | Golgi body |
C | Vacuole |
D | Centrosome |
Cells: The basic unit of life – MCQ Quiz – 2
Question 1 |
Carbohydrates present in the plasmalemma are in the form of
A | cellulose | |
B | hemicellulose | |
C | starch | |
D | glycolipids and glycoproteins | |
Question 2 | ||
Cell organelles are embedded in
A | Nucleolus |
B | Cytoplasm |
C | Protoplasm |
D | Mitochondria |
Question 3 |
Cellular totipotency means
A | Synthesis of new cells | |
B | Formation of new plants | |
C | Formation of new species | |
D | Capability of a plant cell to form complete plant | |
Question 4 | ||
Compare the statements A and B. Statement A : Sclerenchyma cells do not have plasmodesmata. Statement B : The cell walls of some permanent tissues are heavily lignified. Select the correct description :
A | Both the statements A and B are wrong. |
B | Statement A is correct and B is wrong. |
C | Statement A is wrong and B is correct. |
D | Both the statements A and B are correct. |
Question 5 |
Distinction of prokaryotes and eukaryotes is based on
A | Proteins | |
B | Nucleus | |
C | Plasma membrane | |
D | DNA | |
Question 6 | ||
Important site for formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids is
A | Lysosome |
B | Vacuole |
C | Golgi apparatus |
D | Plastid |
Question 7 |
In a Golgi complex the structure which is the functional unit is
A | Cisternae | |
B | Thylakoid | |
C | Archoplasm | |
D | Cristae | |
Question 8 | ||
In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles eukaryotic cell is
A | Cell wall |
B | Plasma membrane |
C | Nucleus |
D | Ribosomes |
Question 9 |
Intact chloroplast from green leaves can be isolated by:
A | Acetone | |
B | Ethanol | |
C | Sucrose solution | |
D | Alcohol | |
Question 10 | ||
Which of the following is considered an exception to cell theory?
A | Protists |
B | Mycoplasma |
C | Virus |
D | Algae |
Question 11 |
Intracellular compartments do not occur in
A | Prokaryotes | |
B | Lower plants | |
C | Eukaryotes | |
D | Higher plants | |
Question 12 | ||
Longest cells in human body are
A | Leg muscle cells |
B | Bone cells |
C | Nerve cells |
D | Heart muscle cells |
Question 13 |
Membrane-bound organelles are absent in
A | Plasmodium | |
B | Saccharomyces | |
C | Streptococcus | |
D | Chlamydomonas | |
Question 14 | ||
Mitochondria do not occur in
A | Bacteria |
B | Green Algae |
C | Brown algae |
D | Red Algae |
Question 15 |
The size of molecules, which can pass through the plasma membrane is
A | 4 – 15 Å |
B | 25 – 80 Å |
C | 8 – 10 Å |
D | 10 – 35 Å |
Cells: The basic unit of life – MCQ Quiz – 3
Question 1 |
Nuclear matter without envelope occurs in
A | Bacteria and Green Algae | |
B | Bacteria and Cyanobacteria | |
C | Cyanobacteria and Red Algae | |
D | Mycoplasma and Green Algae | |
Question 2 | ||
The Golgi apparatus
A | Is found only in animals |
B | Is found in prokaryotes |
C | Is a site of rapid ATP production |
D | Modifies and packages proteins |
Question 3 |
Prokaryote is characterized by
A | Dispersed DNA and lack of membrane bound organelles | |
B | Absence of nuclear envelope | |
C | Absence of nucleolus | |
D | All of these | |
Question 4 | ||
Plasmodesmata transports gibberellic acid in
A | Protists |
B | Mycoplasma |
C | Virus |
D | Algae |
Question 5 |
Smaller cell is
A | less active metabolically | |
B | with larger nucleus | |
C | with smaller nucleus | |
D | more active metabolically | |
Question 6 | ||
The cytoplasmic connections from cell to cell are known as
A | middle lamella |
B | plasmodesmata |
C | cell membrane system |
D | endoplasmic reticulum |
Question 7 |
The main arena of various types of activities of a cell is
A | Nucleus | |
B | Plasma membrane | |
C | Mitochondria | |
D | Cytoplasm | |
Question 8 | ||
The main difference between plant and animal cells is
A | Plant cells has small vacuoles |
B | Animal cell lacks rigid cell wall |
C | Animal cells has large vacuoles |
D | Plant cell lacks rigid cell wall |
Question 9 |
The plasma membrane consists mainly of
A | Proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer | |
B | Phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer | |
C | Proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer | |
D | Proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose molecules | |
Question 10 | ||
The suffix ‘S’ in ribosome unit indicates
A | Solubility |
B | Sedimentation coefficient |
C | Surface Area |
D | Size |
Question 11 |
Tonoplast, also called vacuolar membrane is a differentially permeable membrane surrounds the ______.
A | cytoplasm | |
B | vacuole | |
C | nucleus | |
D | mitochondria | |
Question 12 | ||
Tonoplast is a differentially permeable membrane surrounding the _____.
A | Vacuole |
B | Cytoplasm |
C | Mitochondria |
D | Nucleus |
Question 13 |
What is a genophore?
A | DNA in prokaryotes | |
B | DNA and RNA in prokaryotes | |
C | DNA and protein in prokaryotes | |
D | RNA in prokaryotes | |
Question 14 | ||
When a ripe tomato is pricked with a needle a watery fluid comes out. This fluid is stored in
A | Vacuole |
B | Plastid |
C | Cytoplasm |
D | Nucleus |
Question 15 |
Which one of the following structures between two adjacent cells is an effective transport pathway?
A | Plasmalemma |
B | Plasmodesmata |
C | Plastoquinones |
D | Endoplasmic reticulum |
Cells: The basic unit of life – MCQ Quiz – 4
Question 1 |
Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?
A | Phospholipids | |
B | Cholesterol | |
C | Glycolipids | |
D | Proline | |
Question 2 | ||
Purines possess nitrogen at
A | 1, 2, 4 and 6 position |
B | 1, 3, 5 and 7 position |
C | 1, 3, 7 and 9 position |
D | 1, 2, 6 and 8 position |
Question 3 |
The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are:
A | Semiconservative | |
B | Parallel | |
C | Discontinuous | |
D | Antiparallel | |
Question 4 | ||
Phagocytosis and pinocytosis are collectively termed as
A | Endocytosis |
B | Suspension feeding |
C | Omnivores |
D | Mucous trap |
Question 5 |
Vital stains are employed to study
A | Living cells | |
B | Frozen tissues | |
C | Fresh tissues | |
D | Preserved tissues | |
Question 6 | ||
Which one of the following also acts as a catalyst in a bacterial cell?
A | 23 sr RNA |
B | 5 sr RNA |
C | sn RNA |
D | hn RNA |
Question 7 |
Fluid mosaic model was given by
A | Robertson | |
B | Schwann | |
C | Dave Donson | |
D | Singer and Nicholson | |
Question 8 | ||
Middle lamella is composed mainly of
A | Protein |
B | Hemicellulose |
C | Carbohydrate |
D | Calcium pectate |
Question 9 |
Plasma membrane is made up of
A | Protein, lipid, carbohydrate | |
B | Lipid, carbohydrate | |
C | Protein, lipid | |
D | Protein | |
Question 10 | ||
Which one of the following organisms is not an example of eukaryotic cells
A | Amoeba proteus |
B | Paramecium caudatum |
C | Escherichia coli |
D | Euglena viridis |
Question 11 |
Plasmodesmata are
A | Connections between adjacent cells | |
B | Lignified cemented layers between cells | |
C | Locomotary structures | |
D | Membranes connecting the nucleus with plasmalemma | |
Question 12 | ||
Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly matched with the category mentioned against it?
A | Adenine, Thymine – Purines |
B | Thymine, Uracil – Pyrimidines |
C | Uracil, Cytosine – Pyrimidines |
D | Guanine, Adenine – Purines |
Question 13 |
Keeping in view the ‘fluid mosaic model’ for the structure of cell membrane, which one of the following statements is correct with respect to the movement of lipids and proteins from one lipid monolayer to the other (described as flip-flop movement)?
A | Neither lipids, nor proteins can flip-flop | |
B | Both lipids and proteins can flip-flop | |
C | While lipids can rarely flip-flop, proteins can not | |
D | While proteins can flip-flop, lipids can not | |
Question 14 | ||
The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells. How is this DNA accommodated?
A | Through elimination of repetitive DNA |
B | Deletion of non-essential genes |
C | Super-coiling in nucleosomes |
D | DNAse digestion |
Question 15 |
Comparing small and large cells, which statement is correct?
A | Small cells have a small surface area per volume ratio |
B | Exchange rate of nutrients is fast with large cells |
C | Small cells have a large surface area per volume ratio |
D | Exchange rate of nutrients is slow with small cells |
Cells: The basic unit of life – MCQ Quiz – 5
Question 1 |
Which one of the following does not differ in E.coli and Chlamydomonas?
A | Cell wall | |
B | Cell membrane | |
C | Ribosomes | |
D | Chromosomal organization | |
Question 2 | ||
Select the correct statement from the following regarding cell membrane
A | Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar heads towards the inner part. |
B | Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was proposed by Singer and Nicolson. |
C | Na+ and K+ ions move across cell membrane by passive transport. |
D | Proteins make up 60 to 70% of the cell membrane |
Question 3 |
What is true about ribosomes?
A | These are found only in eukaryotic cells | |
B | These are self-splicing introns of some RNAs. | |
C | The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80S, where “S” stands for sedimentation coefficient | |
D | These are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins. | |
Question 4 | ||
Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in :
A | Nucleoplasm |
B | Ribosomes |
C | Lysosomes |
D | Nucleolus |
Question 5 |
- Coli about to replicate was placed in a medium containing radio active thymidine for five minutes. Then it was made to replicate in a normal medium. Which of the following observation shall be correct?
A | Both the strands of DNA will be radio active | |
B | One strand radio active | |
C | Each strand half radio active | |
D | None is radio active | |
Question 6 | ||
Assertion: A cell membrane shows fluid behaviour.
Reason: A membrane is a mosaic or composite of diverse lipids and proteins.
A | Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. |
B | Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. |
C | Assertion is true statement but Reason is false. |
D | Both Assertion and Reason are false statements. |
Question 7 |
A nucleosome is a portion of the chromonema containing ______.
A | both DNA and histones | |
B | only histones | |
C | both DNA and RNA | |
D | only DNA | |
Question 8 | ||
If a cell has twice as much DNA as in a normal functional cell, it means that the cell ______.
A | has completed division |
B | is preparing to divide |
C | has ceased to function |
D | has reached the end of its lifespan |
Question 9 |
What is the common point of similarity between DNA and RNA?
A | Both are double stranded | |
B | Both have identical sugar molecules | |
C | Both have identical pyrimidine bases | |
D | Both are polymers of nucleotides | |
Question 10 | ||
Cell wall consists of
A | Lignin, hemi cellulose, pectin and lipid |
B | Lignin, hemi cellulose, pectin and cellulose |
C | Lignin hemi cellulose, protein and lipid |
D | Hemi cellulose, cellulose, tubulin and lignin |
Question 11 |
Cytoskeleton is made up of
A | Proteinaceous filaments | |
B | Calcium carbonate granules | |
C | Callose deposits | |
D | Cellulosic microfibrils | |
Question 12 | ||
Vacuole in a plant cell :
A | Lacks membrane and contains water and excretory substances |
B | Is membrane-bound and contains storage proteins and lipids |
C | Is membrane-bound and contains water and excretory substances |
D | Lacks membrane and contains air |
Question 13 |
Polysome is formed by
A | Ribosomes attached to each other in a linear arrangement | |
B | Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA | |
C | Many ribosomes attached to a strand of endoplasmic reticulum | |
D | A ribosome with several subunits | |
Question 14 | ||
The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) in the cells are because of the presence of
A | Mitochondria associated with ER |
B | Ribosomes on the surface of ER |
C | Volutin granules on the surface of ER |
D | Sulphur granules on the surface of ER |
Question 15 |
Assertion: Eukaryotic cells have the ability to adopt a variety of shapes and carry out directed movements.
Reason: There are three principal types of protein filaments-actin filament, microtubules and intermediate filaments, which constitute the cytoskeleton.
A | Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. |
B | Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion. |
C | Assertion is true statement but reason is false. |
D | Both assertion and reason are false. |
Cell Division | Cell cycle: Quiz – 1
Question 1 |
Which stages of cell division do the following figures A and B represent respectively?
Fig. A | Fig. B | ||||
(1) | Prophase | Anaphase | |||
(2) | Metaphase | Telophase | |||
(3) | Telophase | Metaphase | |||
(4) | Late Anaphase | Prophase | |||
A | 1 | ||||
B | 2 | ||||
C | 3 | ||||
D | 4 | ||||
Question 2 | |||||
During oogenesis the cell that is fertilized by a sperm to become an egg is
A | primary spermatocyte |
B | secondary oocyte |
C | primary oocyte |
D | secondary spermatocyte |
Question 3 |
A bivalent consists of
A | Two chromatids and one centromere | |
B | Four chromatids and two centromeres | |
C | Two chromatids and two centromeres | |
D | Four chromatids and four centromeres | |
Question 4 | ||
A change in the amount of yolk and its distribution in the egg will affect:
A | Fertilization |
B | Formation of zygote |
C | Pattern of cleavage |
D | Number of blastomeres produced |
Question 5 |
Chromosomes can be counted best at the stage of
A | Metaphase | |
B | Late anaphase | |
C | Telophase | |
D | Late prophase | |
Question 6 | ||
The stage in which daughter chromosomes move toward the poles of the spindle is
A | Anaphase |
B | Metaphase |
C | Prophase |
D | Telophase |
Question 7 |
Chiasmata are first seen in
A | Pachytene | |
B | Zygotene | |
C | Leptotene | |
D | Diplotene | |
Question 8 | ||
Protein subunit found within microtubules is
A | Collagen |
B | Tubulin |
C | Myosin |
D | DNA |
Question 9 |
Balbiani rings occur in
A | Autosome | |
B | Heterosome | |
C | Lampbrush chromosome | |
D | Polytene chromosome | |
Question 10 | ||
Cell plate grows from
A | One wall to another |
B | Centre to wall |
C | Wall to centre |
D | Simultaneously |
Question 11 |
Which of the following cellular structures always disappears during mitosis and meiosis?
A | Plasma membrane | |
B | Nucleolus and nuclear envelope | |
C | Plastids | |
D | none of these | |
Question 12 | ||
Centromere is a constituent of
A | Ribosome |
B | ER |
C | Chromosome |
D | Mitochondrion |
Question 13 |
Chiasma formation occurs in
A | Pachytene | |
B | Zygotene | |
C | Leptotene | |
D | Diplotene | |
Question 14 | ||
Crossing-over results in
A | Recombination of linked alleles |
B | Dominance of alleles |
C | Segregation of alleles |
D | Linkage between genes |
Question 15 |
Cytoplasmic division of a cell is called
A | Cell plate formation |
B | Cytokinesis |
C | Mitosis |
D | Synapsis |
Cell Division | Cell cycle: Quiz – 2
Question 1 |
Given below is a schematic break-up of the phases/stages of cell cycle Which one of the following is the correct indication of the stage/phase in the cell cycle?
A | A-Cytokinesis | |
B | B-Metaphase | |
C | C-Karyokinesis | |
D | D-Synthetic phase | |
Question 2 | ||
DNA replication takes place during
A | S – phase |
B | G2 – phase |
C | G1 – phase |
D | Prophase |
Question 3 |
During meiosis I, the number of chromosomes is
A | Halved | |
B | Tripled | |
C | Doubled | |
D | Quadrupled | |
Question 4 | ||
During mitosis ER and nucleolus begin to disappear at
A | Early prophase |
B | Late prophase |
C | Early metaphase |
D | Late metaphase |
Question 5 |
Crossing over occurs in
A | Pachytene | |
B | Zygotene | |
C | Leptotene | |
D | Diplotene | |
Question 6 | ||
During which stage the chromosomes first become visible.
A | Anaphase |
B | Metaphase |
C | Prophase |
D | Telophase |
Question 7 |
Exchange of paternal and maternal chromosome material during cell division is
A | Crossing over | |
B | Bivalent formation | |
C | Dyad formation | |
D | Synapsis | |
Question 8 | ||
Haploid complement of chromosome of an organism is
A | Genome |
B | Phenotype |
C | Genotype |
D | Genetic system |
Question 9 |
During gamete formation, the enzyme recombinase participates during
A | Prophase-I | |
B | Prophase-II | |
C | Metaphase-I | |
D | Anaphase-II | |
Question 10 | ||
In Human secondary spermatocyte how many chromosomes are present?
A | 45 |
B | 23 |
C | 30 |
D | 15 |
Question 11 |
Lampbrush chromosomes are observed in
A | Mitotic prophase | |
B | Mitotic metaphase | |
C | Meiotic metaphase | |
D | Meiotic prophase | |
Question 12 | ||
In humans, at the end of the first meiotic division, the male germ cells differentiate into the:
A | Spermatogonia |
B | Primary spermatocytes |
C | Secondary spermatocytes |
D | Spermatids |
Question 13 |
In mitosis, nuclear envelope and nucleolus disappear during
A | Metaphase | |
B | Interphase | |
C | Prophase | |
D | Telophase | |
Question 14 | ||
Meiosis is best seen in
A | Gamete |
B | Pollen grain |
C | Microsporangium |
D | Anther wall |
Question 15 |
Meiosis occurs for the human female in ______.
A | Pancreas |
B | Liver |
C | Ovary |
D | Kidney |
Biomolecules: MCQs Quiz – 01
Question 1 |
The curve given below show enzymatic activity with relation to three conditions (pH, temperature and substrate concentration). What do both axes (x and y) represent?
x-axis | y-axis | |||
(1) | Enzymatic activity | Temperature | ||
(2) | Enzymatic activity | pH | ||
(3) | Temperature | Enzyme Activity | ||
(4) | Substrate concentration | Enzymatic Activity | ||
A | Option (1) | |||
B | Option (2) | |||
C | Option (3) | |||
D | Option (4) | |||
Question 2 | ||||
Which one of the following structural formulae of two organic compounds is correctly identified along with its related function?
A | A : Lecithin – a component of cell membrane |
B | B : Adenine – a nucleotide that makes up nucleic acids |
C | A : Triglyceride – major source of energy |
D | B : Uracil – a component of DNA |
Question 3 |
The ‘‘lock and key’’ model of enzyme action illustrates that a particular enzyme molecule
A | May be destroyed and resynthesised several times | |
B | Interacts with a specific type of substrate molecule | |
C | Reacts at identical rates under all conditions | |
D | Forms a permanent enzyme-substrate complex | |
Question 4 | ||
One strand of DNA has the following sequence of nucleotide 3’ ATTCGCTAT 5’ so the other strand of DNA has
A | 5’ TAAGCGATA 3’ |
B | 3’ TAAGCGATA 5’ |
C | 5’ GACGCGATA 3’ |
D | 3’ GACGCGATA 5’. |
Question 5 |
With reference to enzymes, which one of the following statements is true?
A | Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme | |
B | Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme | |
C | Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme | |
D | Holoenzyme = Coenzyme – Apoenzyme | |
Question 6 | ||
Feedback inhibition of enzymes is affected by which of the following
A | enzyme |
B | substrate |
C | end products |
D | intermediate end products |
Question 7 |
Example of a typical homopolysaccharide is
A | Lignin | |
B | Suberin | |
C | Inulin | |
D | Starch | |
Question 8 |
Which of the following is not a conjugated protein?
A | Peptone |
B | Phosphoprotein |
C | Lipoprotein |
D | Chromoprotein |
Question 9 |
Chitin is a
A | Polysaccharide | |
B | Nitrogenous polysaccharide | |
C | Lipoprotein | |
D | Protein | |
Question 10 | ||
Which one is diaminodicarboxylic amino acid?
A | Cystine |
B | Lysine |
C | Cysteine |
D | Aspartic Acid |
Question 11 |
The effectiveness of an enzyme is affected least by
A | Temperature | |
B | Concentration of the substrate | |
C | Original activation energy of the system | |
D | Concentration of the enzyme | |
Question 12 | ||
Which is an organic compound found in most cells?
A | Glucose |
B | Water |
C | Sodium chloride |
D | Oxygen |
Question 13 |
Enzymes that catalyse inter-conversion of optical, geometrical or positional isomers are
A | Ligases | |
B | Lyases | |
C | Hydrolases | |
D | Isomerases | |
Question 14 | ||
Fluidity of bio-membranes can be shown by
A | Electron microscope |
B | Tissue culture |
C | Phase-contrast microscope |
D | Fluorescence microscope |
Question 15 |
The “Repeating Unit” of glycogen is
A | Fructose |
B | Mannose |
C | Glucose |
D | Galactose |
Biomolecules: MCQs Quiz – 02
4
4
4
4
4
4
4
4
4
Biomolecules Questions: Online Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) on Biomolecules – The Chemistry of Life, with answers and Test Reporting. Test No. 2
Biomolecules: MCQs Quiz – 02
Question 1 |
Given below is the diagrammatic representation of one of the categories of small molecular weight organic compounds in the living tissues. Identify the category shown and the one blank component “X’ in it
Category | Component | |||
(1) | Nucleotide | Adenine | ||
(2) | Nucleoside | Uracil | ||
(3) | Cholesterol | Guanin | ||
(4) | Amino acid | NH2 | ||
A | Option (1) | |||
B | Option (2) | |||
C | Option (3) | |||
D | Option (4) | |||
Question 2 | ||||
Which one of the following is wrong statement?
A | Phosphorus is a constituent of cell membranes, certain nucleic acids and all proteins |
B | Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are chemoautotrophs |
C | Anabaena and Nostoc are capable of fixing nitrogen in free-living state also |
D | Root nodule forming nitrogen fixers live as aerobes under free-living conditions |
Question 3 |
Which one is the most abundant protein in the animal world?
A | Collagen | |
B | Insulin | |
C | Trypsin | |
D | Haemoglobin | |
Question 4 | ||
The catalytic efficiency of two different enzymes can be compared by the
A | Molecular size of the enzyme |
B | The pH optimum value |
C | The Km value |
D | Formation of the product |
Question 5 |
Which one of the following amino-acids was not found to be synthesized in Miller’s experiment?
A | Glutamic acid | |
B | Aspartic acid | |
C | Glycine | |
D | Alanine | |
Question 6 | ||
Example of a typical homopolysaccharide is
A | Inulin |
B | Suberin |
C | Lignin |
D | Starch |
Question 7 |
Which of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct?
A | Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to an inhibitor protein | |
B | Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the enzyme irreversibly | |
C | Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme | |
D | Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding large amount of substrate | |
Question 8 | ||
Enzymes, vitamins and hormones can be classified into a single category of biological chemicals, because all of these
A | Are exclusively synthesized in the body of a living organism as at present |
B | enhance oxidative metabolism |
C | Are conjugated proteins |
D | Help in regulating metabolism |
Question 9 |
Carbohydrates, the most abundant biomolecules on earth, are produced by
A | Fungi, algae and green plants cells | |
B | All bacteria, fungi and algae | |
C | Some bacteria, algae and green plant cells | |
D | Viruses, fungi and bacteria | |
Question 10 | ||
The given graph shows the effect of substrate concentration on the rate of reaction of the enzyme green gram-phosphatase. What does the graph indicate?
A | The rate of enzyme reaction is directly proportional to the substrate concentration |
B | Presence of an enzyme inhibitor in the reaction mixture |
C | Formation of an enzyme-substrate complex |
D | At higher substrate concentration the pH increases |
Question 11 |
The figure given below shows three velocity-substrate concentration curves for an enzyme reaction. What do the curves a, b and c depict respectively?
A | a-normal enzyme reaction, b-competitive inhibition, c-non-competitive inhibition | |
B | a-enzyme with an allosteric modulator added, b-normal enzyme activity, c-competitive inhibition | |
C | a-enzyme with an allosteric stimulator, b-competitive inhibitor added, c-normal enzyme reaction | |
D | a-normal enzyme reaction, b-non-competitive inhibitor added, c-allosteric inhibitor added | |
Question 12 | ||
In which one of the following sets of three items each belong to the category mentioned against them?
A | Lysine, glycine, thiamine — Amino acids |
B | Myosin, oxytocin and gastric — Hormones |
C | Rennin, helicase and hyaluronidase — Enzymes |
D | Optic nerve, oculomotor, vagus — Sensory nerves |
Question 13 |
Assertion: Arachidic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid.
Reason: There are one or more double bonds between carbon atoms in unsaturated fatty acids.
A | Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. | |
B | Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of Assertion. | |
C | Assertion is true, but Reason is false. | |
D | Both Assertion and Reason are false. | |
Question 14 | ||
Assertion: A coenzymes or metal ions that is very tightly bound to enzyme protein is called prosthetic group.
Reason: A complete, catalytically active enzyme together with its bound prosthetic group is called apoenzyme.
A | Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. |
B | Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of Assertion. |
C | Assertion is true, but Reason is false. |
D | Both Assertion and Reason are false. |
Question 15 |
Given below are two statements A and B. Choose the correct answer related to the statements.
Statement A – Amino acids are amphoteric in their function.
Statement B – All amino acids are necessary for our body.
A | Statement A is wrong, statement B is correct |
B | Both the statements A and B are wrong |
C | Statement A is correct, statement B is wrong |
D | Both the statements A and B are correct |
Enzyme: MCQs Quiz – 1
Question 1 |
The general mechanism is that an enzyme acts by
A | reducing the energy of activation | |
B | increasing the energy of activation | |
C | decreasing the pH | |
D | increasing the pH | |
Question 2 | ||
The coenzyme is
A | often a metal |
B | always a protein |
C | often a vitamin |
D | always an inorganic compound |
Question 3 |
An enzyme that joins the ends of two strands of nucleic acid is
A | polymerase | |
B | ligase | |
C | synthetase | |
D | helicase | |
Question 4 | ||
Which of the following is produced with the combination of apoenzyme and coenzyme?
A | Holoenzyme |
B | Enzyme substrate complex |
C | Prosthetic group |
D | Enzyme product complex |
Question 5 |
An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of
A | succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid | |
B | cytochrome oxidase by cyanide | |
C | hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate | |
D | carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide | |
Question 6 | ||
Blocking of enzyme action by blocking its active sites is
A | allosteric inhibition |
B | feedback inhibition |
C | competitive inhibition |
D | non-competitive inhibition |
Question 7 |
Diastase takes part in digestion of ______.
A | Protein | |
B | Starch | |
C | Amino acids | |
D | Fat | |
Question 8 | ||
Enzyme catalyzing rearrangement of atomic groupings without altering molecular weight or number of atoms is
A | ligase |
B | isomerase |
C | oxidoreductase |
D | hydrolase |
Question 9 |
Enzyme complex involved in alcoholic fermentation is
A | Zymase | |
B | Invertase | |
C | Lipase | |
D | Amylase | |
Question 10 |
Zymogen or proenzyme is a
A | Modulator |
B | Vitamin |
C | Enzyme precursor |
D | Hormone |
Question 11 |
Enzymes are basically made up of
A | Fats | |
B | Proteins | |
C | Nucleic acids | |
D | Vitamins | |
Question 12 | ||
Catalysts are different from enzymes in
A | functional at high temperature |
B | not used up in reaction |
C | being proteinaceous |
D | having high rate diffusion |
Question 13 |
Enzymes are polymers of
A | Hexose sugar | |
B | Amino acids | |
C | Fatty acids | |
D | Inorganic phosphate | |
Question 14 | ||
The enzyme which hydrolyses starch to maltose is
A | protease |
B | amylase |
C | lactase |
D | maltase |
Question 15 |
Value needed for enzyme action is ______.
A | Low Km |
B | Low Ki |
C | High Km |
D | High Ki |
Enzyme: MCQs Quiz – 2
Question 1 |
Enzymes are sensitive to
A | cold | |
B | cell wall | |
C | heat | |
D | pressure | |
Question 2 | ||
Specificity of protein in enzyme action depends upon
A | Active sites |
B | Km constant |
C | Linear sequence of amino acids |
D | Turn over number |
Question 3 |
ELISA tests are used to
A | Isolate DNA sequence | |
B | Purity proteins | |
C | Separate viral RNA | |
D | Identify specific proteins | |
Question 4 | ||
In which of the following organisms enzymes are absent
A | Fungi |
B | Viruses |
C | Algae |
D | Bacteria |
Question 5 |
Enzymes exist in the cells as
A | Solution |
B | Crystals |
C | Solids |
D | Colloids |
Question 6 |
Enzymes functional inside the cells are called
A | endoenzymes |
B | exoenzymes |
C | apoenzymes |
D | isoenzymes |
Question 7 |
Enzymes having slightly different molecules structure but performing identical activity are
A | Apoenzymes | |
B | Isoenzymes | |
C | Holoenzymes | |
D | Coenzymes | |
Question 8 | ||
Enzymes, vitamins and hormones are common in
A | Enhancing oxidative metabolism |
B | Being synthesised in the body of organisms |
C | Being proteinaceous |
D | Regulating metabolism |
Question 9 |
Which of the following influence feedback inhibition of enzyme?
A | End product | |
B | External factors | |
C | Enzyme | |
D | Substrate | |
Question 10 | ||
Hydrolysis of starch occurs with the help of
A | Peptidase |
B | Amylase |
C | Sucrose |
D | Lipase |
Question 11 |
In a cell, digestive enzymes mostly occur in
A | Mitochondria | |
B | Lysosomes | |
C | Ribosome | |
D | Plastids | |
Question 12 | ||
A protein having both structural and enzymatic traits is
A | Collagen |
B | Trypsin |
C | Myosin |
D | Actin |
Question 13 |
Km value of enzyme is substrate concentration at
A | 1/2 V max | |
B | 2 V max | |
C | 1/4 V max | |
D | 4 V max | |
Question 14 | ||
One common example of feedback inhibition would be ______.
A | Allosteric inhibition of hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate |
B | Reaction between succinic dehydrogenase and succinic acid |
C | Cyanide and cytochrome reaction |
D | Sulfa drugs and folic acid synthesis in bacteria |
Question 15 |
NADP+ is
A | Enzyme activator |
B | Ion carrier |
C | Hydrogen acceptor |
D | Electron acceptor |
Enzyme: MCQs Quiz – 3
Question 1 |
The first enzyme to be purified and crystallized was
A | Urease |
B | Diastase |
C | Insulin |
D | Zymase |
Question 2 |
Beadle and Tatum showed that each kind of mutant bread mould they studied lacked a specific enzyme. Their experiments demonstrated that
A | Cells need specific enzymes in order to function |
B | Genes are made of DNA |
C | Genes carry information for making proteins |
D | Enzymes are required to repair damaged DNA information |
Question 3 |
Many enzymes are secreted in inactive form to protect
A | Cell Membrane | |
B | Mitochondria | |
C | Cell proteins | |
D | Cell DNA | |
Question 4 | ||
Most of the members of vitamin B complex act as
A | Cofactor |
B | Coenzyme |
C | Prosthetic group |
D | Apoenzyme |
Question 5 |
Restriction endonuclease is employed for
A | Cutting RNA | |
B | Cutting single stranded DNA | |
C | Cutting double stranded DNA | |
D | Joining strands of DNA | |
Question 6 | ||
Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which
A | Remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule |
B | Make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule |
C | Recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase |
D | Restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase |
Question 7 |
Ribozyme is
A | RNA without phosphate | |
B | RNA with sugar | |
C | RNA with enzyme activity | |
D | RNA with extra phosphate | |
Question 8 | ||
The activity of succinate dehydrogenase is inhibited by
A | Glycolate |
B | Pyruvate |
C | Malonate |
D | Phosphoglycerate |
Question 9 |
The enzyme responsible for the reduction of molecular nitrogen to the level of ammonia in the leguminous root nodule is
A | nitrogenase | |
B | nitrate reductase | |
C | nitrite reductase | |
D | all of the above | |
Question 10 | ||
The non protein part of an enzyme is known as
A | Holoenzyme |
B | Vitamin |
C | Apoenzyme |
D | Prosthetic group |
Question 11 |
The polypeptide or protein part of the enzyme is called
A | Apoenzyme | |
B | Holoenzyme | |
C | Prosthetic group | |
D | Zymogen | |
Question 12 | ||
Turn over number of an enzyme is dependent upon
A | Size of enzyme |
B | Molecular weight of enzyme |
C | Active sites |
D | Concentration of substrate |
Question 13 |
Which one of the following is resistant to enzyme action?
A | Leaf cuticle | |
B | Cork | |
C | Wood fibre | |
D | Pollen exine | |
Question 14 | ||
Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
A | Textile – amylase |
B | Detergents – lipase |
C | Alcohol – nitrogenase |
D | Fruit juice – pectinase |
Question 15 |
Which one of the following statements is true with reference to enzymes?
A | Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme |
B | Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme |
C | Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme |
D | Holoenzyme = Coenzyme – Apoenzyme |
Digestive system and Nutrition: Quiz – 1
Question 1 |
Enterokinase occurs in
A | Salivary juice | |
B | Gastric juice | |
C | Intestinal juice | |
D | Pancreatic juice | |
Question 2 | ||
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
A | Vitamin B12 – Pernicious anaemia |
B | Vitamin B1 – Beriberi |
C | Vitamin B2 – Pellagra |
D | Vitamin C – Scurvy |
Question 3 |
Bile helps in digestion of fats through
A | Breaking fat into small pieces | |
B | Emulsification | |
C | Forming muscles | |
D | none of these | |
Question 4 | ||
Bile secretion occurs in the proportion of
A | Amount of protein in food |
B | Amount of fat in food |
C | Amount of carbohydrate in food |
D | Uncertain |
Question 5 |
If a patient is advised to take more meat, butter milk and eggs in his diet. The person is
A | Suffering from rickets | |
B | Can not see in the dark | |
C | Suffering from scurry | |
D | Suffering from Kwashiorkor disease | |
Question 6 | ||
Correct enzyme-substrate pair is
A | Maltose-lactase |
B | Protein-amylase |
C | Carbohydrate-lipase |
D | Casein-rennin |
Question 7 |
A pair of small lymphatic tissue present at the sides of root tongue is called as
A | Epiglottis | |
B | Tonsils | |
C | Thyroid | |
D | Adenoids | |
Question 8 | ||
A triglyceride molecule has
A | Three fatty acids with one glycerol molecule |
B | One fatty acid with one glycerol molecule |
C | Three fatty acids with two glycerol molecules |
D | One fatty acid with three glycerol molecule |
Question 9 |
Anxiety and eating spicy food together in an otherwise normal human, may lead to
A | Diarrhoea | |
B | Vomiting | |
C | Indigestion | |
D | Jaundice | |
Question 10 | ||
Aneurin is the other name for
A | Vitamin B2 |
B | Vitamin B6 |
C | Vitamin B12 |
D | Vitamin B1 |
Question 11 |
Bilirubin and biliverdin are present in
A | Pancreatic juice | |
B | Saliva | |
C | Bile | |
D | Intestinal juice | |
Question 12 | ||
Brunner’s glands are found in
A | Mucosa of oesophagus |
B | Mucosa of stomach |
C | Submucosa of duodenum |
D | Mucosa of ileum |
Question 13 |
Brush-border enzymes are found in
A | phagocytic vesicles | |
B | microvilli | |
C | zymogen granules | |
D | goblet cells | |
Question 14 | ||
Calcium deficiency in the body can be found due to absence of
A | Vitamin C |
B | Vitamin B |
C | Vitamin D |
D | Vitamin E |
Question 15 |
Calcium occurs in
A | Cells of respiratory system |
B | Bones and teeth |
C | All body cells |
D | 3% of mineral content |
Digestive system and Nutrition: Quiz – 2
Question 1 |
Copper deficiency causes
A | Anaemia and damages to CNS | |
B | Pellagra | |
C | Xerophthalmia | |
D | Influenza | |
Question 2 | ||
Crypts of lieberkuhn secrete
A | Succus entericus |
B | Ptyalin |
C | Cholecystokinin |
D | Cellulases |
Question 3 |
Deamination occurs in liver to
A | make use of excess amino acid | |
B | synthesis amino acids | |
C | get rid of urea from blood | |
D | convert proteins to urea and uric acid | |
Question 4 | ||
Deficiency of vitamin C can lead to
A | dermatitis |
B | lips fissure |
C | scurvy |
D | rickets |
Question 5 |
Deficiency of vitamin D can lead to
A | dermatitis | |
B | lips fissure | |
C | scurvy | |
D | rickets | |
Question 6 | ||
Digestion of starch takes place in
A | Buccal cavity and esophagus |
B | Buccal cavity and duodenum |
C | Stomach and duodenum |
D | Duodenum only |
Question 7 |
Which vitamin can be synthesized by bacteria inside gut?
A | Vitamin B1 | |
B | Vitamin C | |
C | Vitamin K | |
D | Vitamin D | |
Question 8 | ||
Duct leading from parotid gland and opening into vestibule is
A | Wolffian duct |
B | Stenson’s duct |
C | Haversian duct |
D | Infra-orbit duct |
Question 9 |
During prolonged fasting, in what sequence are the following organic compounds used up by the body?
A | First carbohydrates, next proteins and lastly lipids | |
B | First carbohydrates, next fats and lastly proteins | |
C | First fats, next carbohydrates and lastly proteins | |
D | First proteins next lipids and lastly carbohydrates | |
Question 10 | ||
Emulsification of fat occurs by
A | Bile salts |
B | Pancreatic juice |
C | Bile pigments |
D | Succus entericus |
Question 11 |
Epithelial cells of intestine involved in food absorption have on their surface
A | Zymogen granules | |
B | Phagocytic vesicles | |
C | Pinocytic vesicles | |
D | Microvilli | |
Question 12 | ||
Excessive intake of alcohol causes
A | Liver cirrhosis |
B | Dermatitis |
C | Jaundice |
D | Lung fibrosis |
Question 13 |
Gastric juice contains
A | Pepsin, HCl | |
B | Pepsin, Trypsin | |
C | Pepsin, Renin | |
D | None of these | |
Question 14 | ||
Which one of the following pairs of food components in humans reaches the stomach totally undigested?
A | Starch and cellulose |
B | Protein and starch |
C | Starch and fat |
D | Fat and cellulose |
Question 15 |
Hydrolytic enzymes occur in
A | Ribosomes |
B | Lysosomes |
C | ER |
D | Golgi body |
Digestive system and Nutrition: Quiz – 3
Question 1 |
Excess Intake of which of the following vitamins can cause ‘Hyperkeratosis’?
A | Vitamin C | |
B | Vitamin B12 | |
C | Vitamin A | |
D | Vitamin K | |
Question 2 | ||
Emulsification of fat takes place through
A | Liver enzymes |
B | Bile pigments |
C | Bile salts |
D | Enzymes of small intestine |
Question 3 |
Enterokinase converts
A | Pepsinogen into pepsin | |
B | Protein into polypeptide | |
C | Trypsinogen into trypsin | |
D | All of these | |
Question 4 | ||
In glycolysis ultimately
A | starch is converted into glucose |
B | glucose is converted into fructose |
C | protein is converted into glucose |
D | glucose is converted into pyruric acid |
Question 5 |
When breast feeding is replaced by less nutritive food low in proteins and calories; the infants below the age of one year are likely to suffer from
A | Pellagra | |
B | Marasmus | |
C | Rickets | |
D | Kwashiorkor | |
Question 6 | ||
In the absence of enterokinase, the digestion of _______ would be affected in our intestine.
A | Amino acid |
B | Albumin |
C | Starch |
D | Maltose |
Question 7 |
Which cells in liver act as phagocytes?
A | Acinar cells | |
B | Hensen’s cells | |
C | Kupffer cells | |
D | Dieter cells | |
Question 8 | ||
Keratinization of the skin is prevented by
A | Vitamin D |
B | Vitamin A |
C | Vitamin B |
D | Vitamin C |
Question 9 |
Intestinal villi are mainly connected with
A | Secretion | |
B | Absorption | |
C | Assimilation | |
D | Ultra-filtration | |
Question 10 | ||
Lecithin is
A | Fat |
B | Steroid |
C | Phospholipid |
D | Protein |
Question 11 |
In duodenum the enzyme which breaks down starch to maltose is
A | maltase | |
B | trypsin | |
C | lipase | |
D | pancreatic amylase | |
Question 12 | ||
Lipase acts on
A | Triglycerides |
B | Proteins |
C | Starch |
D | All of these |
Question 13 |
Main difference between brown fat and white fat is that the cells of brown fat
A | Are polygonal in shape | |
B | Have more mitochondria | |
C | Are multi colored | |
D | All of these | |
Question 14 | ||
Which of the following is un-matching pair?
A | Kidney – nephron |
B | Liver – hepatocytes |
C | Pancreas – Glisson’s capsule |
D | Stomach – cardiac glands |
Question 15 |
Oxyntic cells in stomach secrete
A | HCl |
B | Mucus |
C | Pepsin |
D | Renin |
Digestive system and Nutrition: Quiz – 4
Question 1 |
Which of the following is required for the development of erythrocytes?
A | Vitamin E | |
B | Vitamin K | |
C | Vitamin B12 | |
D | Vitamin A | |
Question 2 | ||
Peyer’s patches found in the small intestine are
A | Epithelial tissue |
B | Glandular tissue |
C | Lymphatic tissue |
D | Haemopoietic tissue |
Question 3 |
Ptyalin is
A | Strongly acidic | |
B | Slightly neutral | |
C | Slightly acidic | |
D | Strongly alkaline | |
Question 4 | ||
Rickets can be prevented by taking
A | Calciferol |
B | Green vegetables |
C | Carrots |
D | Oranges |
Question 5 |
Seminal plasma in humans is rich in
A | Fructose and certain enzymes but poor in calcium | |
B | Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes | |
C | Fructose and calcium but has no enzymes | |
D | Glucose and certain enzymes but has no calcium | |
Question 6 | ||
Surgical removal of gall bladder in human beings would lead to
A | Jaundice |
B | Increased acidity in the intestine |
C | Impairment of the digestion of fat |
D | none of these |
Question 7 |
Sweetest sugar is
A | Fructose | |
B | Sucrose | |
C | Glucose | |
D | Lactose | |
Question 8 | ||
Tadpole is
A | Omnivorous |
B | Herbivorous |
C | Carnivorous |
D | Sanguivorous |
Question 9 |
Taste buds for bitter taste are found on tongue at
A | posterior part | |
B | on basal surface | |
C | tip | |
D | lateral sides | |
Question 10 | ||
The absorption of glycerol, fatty acids and monoglycerides takes place by the
A | Lymph vessels within the villi |
B | Colon |
C | Capillaries within the villi |
D | Wall of the stomach |
Question 11 |
The catalytic efficiency of two different enzymes can be compared by the
A | Molecular size of enzyme | |
B | Km value | |
C | pH optimum value | |
D | Formation of the product | |
Question 12 | ||
Name the substance which is not a product formed in the small intestine?
A | amino acids |
B | Lipids |
C | Lipoproteins |
D | proteins |
Question 13 |
The cells in the wall of intestine are stimulated to produce secretin by
A | Cholecystokinin | |
B | Acid in chyme | |
C | Bile juice | |
D | Gastrin | |
Question 14 | ||
The characteristics Brunner’s glands found in duodenum secrete hormones:
A | Kinase, estrogen |
B | Secretin, cholecystokinin |
C | Prolactin, parathormone |
D | Estradiol, progesterone |
Question 15 |
Secretin stimulates production of
A | Bile |
B | Gastric juice |
C | Saliva |
D | Pancreatic juice |
Organ that produces bile is ______.
A | pancreas | |
B | esophagus | |
C | liver | |
D | stomach | |
Question 2 | ||
The component in bile which helps to emulsify fat in the duodenum is
A | bile salts |
B | biliverdin |
C | bilirubin |
D | cholesterol |
Question 3 |
The HCl in gastric juice converts:
A | Disaccharide to monosaccharide | |
B | Pepsinogen to pepsin | |
C | Prorennin to rennin | |
D | Polypeptide to peptide | |
Question 4 | ||
Enzymes that is found on the mucosa of the intestinal villi is
A | peptidase |
B | trypsin |
C | amylase |
D | lipase |
Question 5 |
Which factor is required for maturation of erythrocytes?
A | Vitamin A | |
B | Vitamin B12 | |
C | Vitamin C | |
D | Vitamin D | |
Question 6 | ||
The hardest substance in the vertebrate body is
A | Keratin |
B | Chondrin |
C | Dentine |
D | Enamel |
Question 7 |
The glucose is converted into glycogen in liver and stored in
A | Liver and spleen | |
B | Liver and muscle | |
C | Liver | |
D | Spleen and muscles | |
Question 8 | ||
The main cause of anaemia is
A | Deficiency of Ca |
B | Deficiency of Na |
C | Deficiency of Fe |
D | Deficiency of Mg |
Question 9 |
The movements in the gut wall are known as
A | Metachronal | |
B | Diastole | |
C | Systole | |
D | Peristalsis | |
Question 10 | ||
Which enzyme is used in alcoholic fermentation of yeast?
A | Maltase |
B | Invertase |
C | Sucrase |
D | Zymase |
Question 11 |
The pH scale is used to measure
A | Electric charge on ion | |
B | Speed with which ions form | |
C | Size of ions | |
D | Concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution | |
Question 12 | ||
Which one of the following statements is true regarding digestion and absorption of food in humans?
A | About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mouth |
B | Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen |
C | Fructose and amino acids are absorbed through intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions like Na+ |
D | Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from intestine into blood capillaries |
Question 13 |
The vitamin essential for blood clotting is
A | Vitamin A | |
B | Vitamin D | |
C | Vitamin B | |
D | Vitamin K | |
Question 14 | ||
Enzymes that is found on the mucosa of the intestinal villi is
A | peptidase |
B | trypsin |
C | amylase |
D | lipase |
Question 15 |
To prevent entry of food into the trachea the opening is guarded by
A | Epiglottis |
B | Hard palate |
C | Glottis |
D | Soft palate |
Digestive system and Nutrition: Quiz – 5(b)
Question 1 |
Sericteries are modified ______.
A | intestinal glands | |
B | endocrine glands | |
C | gastric glands | |
D | Salivary glands | |
Question 2 | ||
Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and secreted by
A | Liver cells |
B | Endothelial cells (cells lining the blood vessels) |
C | Macula densa cells |
D | Juxtaglomerular (JG) cells |
Question 3 |
Which one of the followings is a fat-soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?
A | Retinol – Xerophthalmia | |
B | Ascorbic acid – Scurvy | |
C | Calciferol – Pellagra | |
D | Cobalamin – Beri-beri | |
Question 4 | ||
The main function of lacteals in the villi of human small intestine is the absorption of______.
A | Water and mineral salts |
B | Amino acids and glucose |
C | Glucose and vitamins |
D | Fatty acids and glycerol |
Question 5 |
Continued consumption of a diet rich in butter, red meat and eggs for a long period may lead to
A | urine laden with ketone bodies | |
B | kidney stones | |
C | vitamin A toxicity | |
D | hypercholesterolemia | |
Question 6 | ||
Sphincter of Oddi guards
A | Hepatopancreatic duct |
B | Common bile duct |
C | Pancreatic duct |
D | Cystic duct |
Question 7 |
Liver is the largest gland in the body and associated with various functions. Choose the incorrect one from the followings.
A | Processes and stores nutrients | |
B | Involved in blood glucose homeostasis | |
C | Produces bile for emulsification of fats | |
D | Secrete hormone called gastric | |
Question 8 | ||
The backflow of faecal matter in the large intestine is prevented by the presence of
A | pyloric sphincter |
B | sphincter of Oddi |
C | ileocecal (ileocaecal) valve |
D | gastric-oesophageal sphincter |
Question 9 |
Match Lit I with List II and choose the correct option
List I | List II | ||||
(a) | Salivary amylase | (i) | Proteins | ||
(b) | Bile salts | (ii) | Milk proteins | ||
(c) | Renin | (iii) | Starch | ||
(d) | Pepsin | (iv) | Lipids | ||
(e) | Steapsin | (v) | Emulsification of fats | ||
A | a – v, b – iv, c – i, d – ii, e – iii | ||||
B | a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d – v, e – i | ||||
C | a – ii, b – iv, c – iii, d – I, e – v | ||||
D | a – iii, b – v, c – ii, d – i, e – iv | ||||
Question 10 | |||||
Match column I with column II and choose the correct option:
Column I | Column II | |||
(i) | Goblet cells | (a) | Antibacterial agent | |
(ii) | Lysozyme | (b) | Mucus | |
(iii) | Saliva | (c) | HCl | |
(iv) | Oxyntic cells | (d) | Sublingual gland | |
A | i – a, ii – c, iii – d, iv – b | |||
B | i – b, ii – c, iii – a, iv – d | |||
C | i – d, ii – a, iii – b, iv – c | |||
D | i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c | |||
Question 11 |
Read the statements A and B.
- A) The human small intestine is the longest portion in the alimentary canal
- B) Absorption of digested food requires a very large surface area
Identify the correct choice on the two statements.
A | Statements A and B are both correct. | |
B | Statement A is correct, B is wrong. | |
C | Statement B is correct, A is wrong. | |
D | Both the statements are wrong. | |
Question 12 | ||
Which one of the following pairs of the kind of cells and their secretion of correctly matched?
A | Oxyntic cells — A secretion with pH between 2.0 and 3.0 |
B | Alpha cells of islets of Langerhans — Secretion that decreases blood sugar level |
C | Kupffer cells — A digestive enzyme that hydrolyses nucleic acids |
D | Sebaceous glands — A secretion that evaporates for cooling |
Question 13 |
Match the types of cells listed under column I with the secretions given under column II. Choose the answer which gives the correct combination of the alphabets of the two columns.
Column – I (Types of cells) | Column — II (Secretions) | ||||
(A) | Beta cells | (p) | Lysozyme | ||
(B) | Mast cells | (q) | Mucus | ||
(C) | Paneth cells | (r) | Histamine | ||
(D) | Acinar cells | (s) | Insulin | ||
(t) | Pancreatic enzymes | ||||
A | A – s, B – r, C – p, D – t | ||||
B | A – q, B – r, C – p, D – t | ||||
C | A – s, B – q, C – p, D – t | ||||
D | A – t, B – q, C – r, D – s | ||||
Question 14 | |||||
Consider the following statements:
(A) Niacin (the anti-pellagra vitamin) is present in meats, fish, peanuts, poultry, fruits and leafy green vegetables.
(B) Crypts of Lieberkuhn are present in the liver
(C) Steapsin is the pancreatic amylase
A | A and C correct |
B | A and C incorrect |
C | B and C correct |
D | B and C incorrect |
Question 15 |
The following is a scheme showing the fate of carbohydrates during digestion in the human alimentary canal. Identify the enzymes acting at stages indicated as A, B, C and D. Choose the correct option from those given.
A | A = Amylase, B = Maltase, C = Lactase, D = Invertase |
B | A = Amylase, B = Maltase, C = Invertase, D = Lactase |
C | A = Amylase, B = Invertase, C = Maltase, I) = Lactase |
D | A = Amylase, B = Lactase, C = Maltase, D = Invertase |
Digestive system and Nutrition: Quiz – 6
Question 1 |
Column I contains names of the sphincter muscles of the alimentary canal and column II contains their locations. Match them properly and choose the correct answer.
Column I | Column II | |||
A | Sphincter of ani internus | p | opening of hepatopancreatic duct into duodenum | |
B | Cardiac sphincter | q | between duodenum and posterior stomach | |
C | Sphincter of oddi | r | guarding the terminal part of alimentary canal | |
D | Ileocaecal sphincter | s | between esophagus and anterior stomach | |
E | Pyloric sphincter | t | Between small intestine and bowel | |
A | A = r, B = q, C = s, D = p, E = t | |||
B | A = q, B = t, C = p, D = s, E = r | |||
C | A = r, B = s, C = p, D = t, E = q | |||
D | A = s, B = r, C = p, D = q, E = t | |||
Question 2 | ||||
The diagram of large intestine of man is given below. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C, D, E and F.
A | A = Caecum, B = Vermiform appendix, C = Sigmoid, D = Ascending colon, E = Transverse colon, F = Descending colon. |
B | A = Sigmoid, B = Vermiform appendix, C = Ascending colon, D = Transverse colon, E = Descending colon, F = Caecum. |
C | A = Sigmoid, B = Vermiform appendix, C = Descending colon, D = Transverse colon, E = Ascending colon, F = Caecum. |
D | A = Caecum, B = Vermiform appendix, C = Ascending colon, D = Transverse colon, E = Descending colon, F = Sigmoid. |
Question 3 |
Liver the largest gland is associated with several functions. Which one of the following is stated incorrectly?
A | Stores glucose as glycogen | |
B | Manufactures bile, converts the amino groups to urea | |
C | Makes all the cholesterol that human body needs | |
D | Secrete hormone called gastric | |
Question 4 | ||
Which one of the following statement is not correct about intestinal villi?
A | A multitudinous finger-like projections having many microvilli |
B | Increase the internal surface area of the intestinal wall. |
C | Supplied with capillaries and the lacteal vessels |
D | Participate only in digestion of fats |
Question 5 |
The following list describes four major digestive enzymes. Which one of the following is incorrect?
A | Salivary amylase – Salivary glands – Mouth | |
B | Pepsin – Gastric glands – Stomach | |
C | Nuclease – Small intestine – Stomach | |
D | Lipase – Pancreas – Small intestine | |
Question 6 | ||
Carrier ions like Na+ facilitate the absorption of substances like
A | Fructose and some amino acids |
B | Amino acids and glucose |
C | Glucose and fatty acids |
D | Fatty acids and glycerol |
Question 7 |
Which one of the following is the correct matching of the site of action on the given substrate, the enzyme acting upon it and the end product?
(1) Stomach: | Fats —Lipase—► micelles | ||
(2) Duodenum: | Triglycerides —Trypsin—► monoglycerides | ||
(3) Small intestine: | Starch —(α)Amylase—► Disaccharide (Maltose) | ||
(4) Small intestine: | Proteins —Pepsin—► Amino acids | ||
A | (1) | ||
B | (2) | ||
C | (3) | ||
D | (4) | ||
Question 8 | |||
If for some reason our goblet cells are non-functional this will adversely affect
A | Smooth movement of food down the intestine |
B | Production of somatostatin |
C | Secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands |
D | Maturation of sperms |
Question 9 |
What will happen if the secretion of parietal cells of gastric glands is blocked with an inhibitor?
A | Enterokinase will not be released from the duodenal mucosa and so trypsinogen is not converted to trypsin | |
B | Gastric juice will be deficient in chymosin | |
C | Gastric juice will be deficient in pepsinogen | |
D | In the absence of HCl secretion, inactive pepsinogen is not converted into the active enzyme pepsin. | |
Question 10 | ||
A young infant may be feeding entirely on mother’s milk which is white in colour but the stool which the infant passes out is quite yellowish. What is this yellow colour due to
A | Pancreatic juice poured into duodenum |
B | Intestinal juice |
C | Bile pigments passed through bile juice |
D | Undigested milk protein casein |
Question 11 |
Bile contribution to digestion is
A | Nucleic acid metabolism | |
B | Phagocytosis | |
C | Emulsification of dietary lipids | |
D | Carbohydrate digestion | |
Question 12 | ||
Name the hormone that stimulates the secretion of gastric juice.
A | Renin |
B | Enterokinase |
C | Enterogastrone |
D | Gastrin |
Question 13 |
Bile salts act as activator of which enzyme?
A | Pepsinogen | |
B | Trypsinogen | |
C | Lipase | |
D | Pancreatic amylase | |
Question 14 | ||
Aggregates of lymphoid tissue present in the distal portion of the small intestine are known as
A | Villi |
B | Peyer’s patches |
C | Rugae |
D | Choroid plexus |
Question 15 |
Which one of the followings is not part of the large intestine?
A | rectum |
B | colon |
C | cecum |
D | duodenum |
Human Respiratory System: MCQs Quiz – 1
Question 1 |
Which of the following statements is true about Trachea in a respiratory system?
A | It functions as passages of air to each alveolus | |
B | It functions for sound production | |
C | It Acts as passage of air to bronchi | |
D | It Lowers the surface tension | |
Question 2 | ||
______ lies in front of esophagus.
A | Trachea |
B | Glottis |
C | Larynx |
D | Epiglottis |
Question 3 |
Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in the chloroplasts and mitochondria is based on
A | Membrane potential | |
B | Accumulation of K ions | |
C | Proton gradient | |
D | Accumulation of Na ions | |
Question 4 | ||
Cilia and mucous are found in ______.
A | Trachea |
B | Glottis |
C | Larynx |
D | Epiglottis |
Question 5 |
Dissociation curve shifts to the right when
A | CO2 concentration decreases | |
B | CO2 concentration increases | |
C | O2 concentration decrease | |
D | CL− concentration increase | |
Question 6 | ||
Due to breakdown and collapse of ______ lung tissue is destroyed.
A | eustachian tubes |
B | bronchioles |
C | alveoli |
D | microtrachea |
Question 7 |
During expiration the diaphragm becomes
A | Dome-shaped | |
B | Flattened | |
C | Normal | |
D | Oblique | |
Question 8 | ||
During pneumonia which of the following gets accumulated in lung tissue?
A | RBC |
B | Fluid WBC |
C | Blood |
D | Plasma |
Question 9 |
During swallowing of food, ______ is the opening covered by epiglottis.
A | trachea | |
B | glottis | |
C | larynx | |
D | epiglottis | |
Question 10 |
During which respiration, the respiratory pigment hemoglobin combines with oxygen in the lungs?
A | Aerobic cellular |
B | External |
C | Internal |
D | Circulatory |
Question 11 |
Each of the alveolar sac is surrounded by
A | capillaries | |
B | veins | |
C | arteries | |
D | primarily lymphatic ducts | |
Question 12 | ||
Enzyme carbonic anhydrase, in ______ speeds up the reaction.
A | Platelets |
B | Leucocytes |
C | Lymphocytes |
D | RBCs |
Question 13 |
Esophagus opens only during
A | speaking | |
B | exhaling | |
C | inhaling | |
D | swallowing | |
Question 14 | ||
Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between alveolar air and blood is governed by _______.
A | diffusion |
B | blood pressure |
C | gravity |
D | active transport |
Question 15 |
Hamburger’s phenomenon is also called
A | Hydrogen shift |
B | Bicarbonate shift |
C | Chloride shift |
D | Sodium shift |
Human Respiratory System: MCQs Quiz – 2
Question 1 |
Hemoglobin retains oxygen and releases it in the ______.
A | heart | |
B | lungs | |
C | glottis | |
D | tissues | |
Question 2 |
Human nose contains ______ nasal cavities
A | one |
B | two |
C | three |
D | four |
Question 3 |
In the human body which concentration is regulated mainly by the kidneys?
A | bicarbonate | |
B | carbaminohemoglobin | |
C | deoxyhemoglobin | |
D | oxyhemoglobin | |
Question 4 | ||
In which of the following restrictive lung disease the vital capacity is reduced to below normal levels.
A | pneumonia |
B | tuberculosis |
C | pulmonary fibrosis |
D | all of the above |
Question 5 |
In which one of the following do the two names refer to one and the same things?
A | Krebs cycle and Calvin cycle | |
B | Tricarboxylic acid cycle and citric acid cycle | |
C | Tricarboxylic acid cycle and urea cycle | |
D | Citric acid cycle and Calvin cycle | |
Question 6 | ||
Lungs are enclosed by
A | diaphragm |
B | pleural membranes |
C | bronchiole membranes |
D | sternum |
Question 7 |
Number of lobes in both right land left lungs are respectively
A | three, two | |
B | two, three | |
C | two, one | |
D | three, three | |
Question 8 | ||
Rheumatic fever can cause damage
A | Alveoli of the Lungs |
B | heart valves |
C | heart muscles |
D | pleural membranes function |
Question 9 |
The Medullary Respiratory centre is under
A | Nervous control | |
B | Physical control | |
C | Chemical Control | |
D | Electric control | |
Question 10 | ||
The oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the right by an increase in ______.
A | H+ concentration |
B | PCO2 |
C | temperature |
D | All of these |
Question 11 |
The primary muscle of inspiration which forms the floor of the thoracic cavity is ______.
A | pleural membrane | |
B | sternum | |
C | ventricle | |
D | diaphragm | |
Question 12 | ||
The tube that runs from the middle ear to the pharynx
A | epiglottis |
B | trachea |
C | glottis |
D | auditory tubes |
Question 13 |
The tube which leads to the stomach from the throat is
A | esophagus | |
B | trachea | |
C | glottis | |
D | larynx | |
Question 14 | ||
Voice box or ______ is the portion of the respiratory tract which contains the vocal cords for producing sound.
A | trachea |
B | glottis |
C | larynx |
D | epiglottis |
Question 15 |
Which one of the followings is the function of Thoracic cavity?
A | Forms the floor of the thoracic cavity |
B | Encloses the lungs |
C | Contains the respiratory organs |
D | None of these |
Human Respiratory System: MCQs Quiz – 3
Question 1 |
Respiratory center is located in the ________.
A | Pneumotaxic center | |
B | Medulla oblongata | |
C | Alveoli | |
D | Apneustic center | |
Question 2 | ||
Bronchi branch into the tubes of smaller diameters (less than 1 mm) known as ______.
A | Microtrachea |
B | Bronchioles |
C | Alveoli |
D | Eustachian tubes |
Question 3 |
What is the instrument that measures the amount of air inhaled and exhaled with each breath?
A | Sphygmomanometer | |
B | Hygrometer | |
C | Stethoscope | |
D | Spirometer | |
Question 4 | ||
Which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding the pharynx?
A | Organ of the upper respiratory tract |
B | Connects to the larynx |
C | Contributes to the production of speech |
D | Composed of smooth muscle |
Question 5 |
Emphysema, a chronic disorder is high in cigarette smokers. In such cases the ______ of the person is/are found damaged.
A | Plasma membrane | |
B | Alveolar walls | |
C | Bronchioles | |
D | Respiratory muscles | |
Question 6 | ||
Asthma is due to
A | Elasticity of lungs is reduced |
B | Degradation of alveolar wall |
C | Bronchioles constrict due to muscle spasms |
D | Damage in diaphragm |
Question 7 |
Amount of air in the lungs that remains after deep breathing is called ______.
A | Dead space | |
B | Residual volume | |
C | Vital capacity | |
D | Ventilation rate | |
Question 8 | ||
The amount of air a person takes in during normal, restful breathing is called the ______.
A | Dead space |
B | Tidal volume |
C | Vital capacity |
D | Ventilation rate |
Question 9 |
What protects the moist membranes of the respiratory tract?
A | Mucus and cilia | |
B | A ‘c’ shaped cartilage rings | |
C | A pebbly epidermal surface | |
D | An acidic glands | |
Question 10 | ||
Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from body tissues into the blood is present as
A | 70% carbaminohemoglobin and 30% as bicarbonate |
B | Carbaminohemoglobin in RBCs |
C | Bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs |
D | Free CO2 in blood plasma |
Question 11 |
Which one of the following is NOT correct?
A | The nasal cavity warms and humidifies the air before it enters the lungs. | |
B | The right lung is composed of three lobes, but the left lung has only two lobes | |
C | Lung volumes and vital capacity measure lung function. | |
D | The visceral pleura is in direct contact with the chest wall. | |
Question 12 | ||
The kind of tissue that forms the supportive structure in our Pinna (external ears) is also found in
A | Tip of the nose |
B | Vertebrae |
C | Nails |
D | Ear ossicles |
Question 13 |
Which two of the following changes (a–d) usually tend to occur in the plain dwellers when they move to high altitudes (3,500 m or more)?
(a) Increase in red blood cell size
(b) Increase in red blood cell production
(c) Increased breathing rate
(d) Increase in thrombocyte count
Changes occurring are
A | (a) and (b) | |
B | (b) and (c) | |
C | (c) and (d) | |
D | (a) and (d) | |
Question 14 | ||
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct about primary bronchi?
A | The trachea splits into the primary bronchi |
B | Primary bronchi supply air to the right and left lungs |
C | These are lined with stratified squamous epithelium |
D | Supporting cartilage of primary bronchi is plate-like shaped |
Question 15 |
The respiratory membrane, through which gas must diffuse, consists of the followings EXCEPT:
A | Alveolar cells and endothelial cells of the capillary |
B | Lymphatic vessel basement membrane |
C | Epithelial basement membrane |
D | Capillary basement membrane |
Human Respiratory System: MCQs Quiz – 4
Question 1 |
Opening to the trachea is covered by a small flap of tissues termed as the ______.
A | Glottis | |
B | Trachea | |
C | Epiglottis | |
D | Larynx | |
Question 2 | ||
The exchange of gases between inhaled air and blood is referred as ______.
A | Cellular respiration |
B | External respiration |
C | Internal respiration |
D | Circulatory respiration |
Question 3 |
The maximum volume of air contained in the lung by a full forced inhalation is called
A | Vital capacity | |
B | Tidal volume | |
C | Total lung capacity | |
D | Inspiratory capacity | |
Question 4 | ||
Aerobic respiratory pathway is also termed as ______ pathway.
A | Anabolic |
B | Catabolic |
C | Creatine phosphate |
D | Amphibolic |
Question 5 |
The maximum volume of air that can be released from the lungs by forceful expiration after deepest inspiration is called the ______.
A | Total lung capacity | |
B | Vital capacity | |
C | Tidal volume | |
D | Ventilation rate | |
Question 6 | ||
Which one is the cofactor of carbonic anhydrase?
A | Cu |
B | Zn |
C | Fe |
D | Mg |
Question 7 |
The trachea divides into two smaller tubes called ______.
A | Bronchi | |
B | Trachea | |
C | Microtrachea | |
D | Eustachian tubes | |
Question 8 | ||
Listed below are four respiratory capacities (a – d) and four jumbled respiratory volumes of a normal human adult
Respiratory capacities | Respiratory volumes |
(a) Residual volume | 2500 mL |
(b) Vital capacity | 3500 mL |
(c) Inspiratory reserve volume | 1200 mL |
(d) Inspiratory capacity | 4500 mL |
Which one of the following is the correct matching of two capacities and volumes?
A | (a) 4500 mL, (b) 3500 mL |
B | (b) 2500 mL, (c) 4500 mL |
C | (c) 1200 mL, (d) 2500 mL |
D | (d) 3500 mL, (a) 1200 mL |
Question 9 |
Inner surface of the bronchi, bronchioles and fallopian tubes are lined by
A | Cubical epithelium | |
B | Columnar epithelium | |
C | Squamous epithelium | |
D | Ciliated epithelium | |
Question 10 | ||
Which one of the following statement is NOT correct regarding trachea?
A | It usually lies posterior to the muscular esophagus. |
B | It splits into the right and left bronchi to supply air to the lungs |
C | Opening to the trachea is covered by epiglottis. |
D | Tracheal rings are C-shaped |
Question 11 |
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
A | Tuberculosis is caused by a rod-shaped bacterium, Mycobacterium tuberculosis. | |
B | Tuberculosis is highly infectious and can be spread by airborne droplets. | |
C | Tuberculosis can’t be treated by antibiotics | |
D | In Pulmonary Tuberculosis the elasticity of lungs is reduced. | |
Question 12 | ||
Which one of the followings is NOT correct regarding Exhalation (expiration)?
A | Expiration is typically a passive process |
B | Exhalation starts when the expiratory muscles relax |
C | The elastic properties of the lung help to expel deoxygenated air during exhalation |
D | During exhalation, elastic properties of the lung help to expel deoxygenated air |
Question 13 |
Which one of the followings is correct regarding larynx?
A | It prevents foreign objects from entering the trachea | |
B | It houses the vocal cords | |
C | It is an organ made of cartilage and connects the pharynx to the trachea | |
D | All of these are correct. | |
Question 14 | ||
Which one of the following is a possibility for most of us in regard to breathing, by making a conscious effort?
A | One can consciously breathe in and breathe out by moving the diaphragm alone, without moving the ribs at all |
B | The lungs can be made fully empty by forcefully breathing out all air from them |
C | One can breathe out air totally without oxygen |
D | One can breathe out air through eustachian tubes by closing both the nose and the mouth |
Question 15 |
The figure given below shows a small part of human lung where exchange of gases takes place. In which one of the options given below, the one part A, B, C or D is correctly identified along with its function?
A | B : Red blood cell – transport of CO2 mainly |
B | C : Arterial capillary – passes oxygen to tissues |
C | A : alveolar cavity – main site of exchange of respiratory gases |
D | D : Capillary wall – exchange of O2 and CO2 takes place here |
Atherosclerosis refers to ailment of
A | Kidney | |
B | Heart | |
C | Lungs | |
D | Liver | |
Question 2 |
Which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood pressure?
A | 190/110 mmHg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney |
B | 130/90 mmHg is considered high and requires treatment |
C | 100/55 mmHg is considered an ideal blood pressure |
D | 105/50 mmHg makes one very active |
Question 3 |
A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in the human blood even after its uptake by the body tissues. This O2
A | Helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelium tissues | |
B | Acts as a reserve during muscular exercise | |
C | Raises the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg | |
D | Is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation at 96% | |
Question 4 | ||
A muscular wall is absent in
A | Capillary |
B | Vein |
C | Venule |
D | Arteriole |
Question 5 |
Adrenaline directly affects
A | Oxyntic cells of stomach | |
B | Sinoatrial node | |
C | Islet of Langerhans | |
D | Dorsal root ganglia of spinal cord | |
Question 6 | ||
All arteries carry oxygenated blood, except
A | Pulmonary artery |
B | Renal artery |
C | Hepatic artery |
D | Cardiac artery |
Question 7 |
An adult human has systolic and diastolic pressures as:
A | 80 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg | |
B | 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg | |
C | 50 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg | |
D | 80 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg | |
Question 8 | ||
In sun our face becomes reddish due to
A | Breakup of RBC and release of haemoglobin |
B | Expansion of blood capillaries |
C | Effect of light |
D | Irritation of skin |
Question 9 |
Anticoagulant of fresh water leech is
A | Sodium citrate | |
B | Heparin | |
C | Hirudin | |
D | Chelating agent | |
Question 10 | ||
Arteries are best defined as the vessels which
A | Carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ |
B | Supply oxygenated blood to the different organs |
C | Carry blood away from the heart to different organs |
D | Break up into capillaries which reunite to form a vein |
Question 11 |
Artificial pace maker is transplanted in
A | Inter auricular septum | |
B | Below the collar bone | |
C | Inter ventricular septum | |
D | Right auricle | |
Question 12 | ||
Average cardiac output is
A | 5.3 litre/minute |
B | 6.3 litre/minute |
C | 7.3 litre/minute |
D | 4 litre/minute |
Question 13 |
Serum is
A | Blood without corpuscles and fibrinogen | |
B | Lymph without corpuscles | |
C | Blood without fibrinogen | |
D | Lymph | |
Question 14 | ||
Blood pressure increases and heart rate decreases in response to
A | Exposure to high altitude |
B | Exercise |
C | Hemorrhage |
D | Increased intracranial pressure |
Question 15 |
Blood pressure of a healthy person is
A | 140 / 60 |
B | 120 / 80 |
C | 80 / 120 |
D | 90 / 60 |
Circulation of Body Fluids: Quiz – 2
Question 1 |
Both erythrocytes and leucocytes are formed in
A | Lymph nodes | |
B | Bone marrow | |
C | Thymus | |
D | Arterial walls | |
Question 2 | ||
Brain completely depends on blood from the supply of
A | Oxygen and glucose |
B | Oxygen and ATP |
C | Oxygen and electrolytes |
D | Glucose and ATP |
Question 3 |
Bundle of His is a network of
A | Nerve fibres distributed in ventricles | |
B | Muscle fibres found only in the ventricle wall | |
C | Muscle fibres distributed throughout the heart walls | |
D | Nerve fibres found throughout the heart | |
Question 4 | ||
‘Bundle of His’ is a part of which one of the following organs in humans?
A | Pancreas |
B | Brain |
C | Heart |
D | Kidney |
Question 5 |
Cardiac output is defined as the amount of blood
A | Pumped by both ventricles per second | |
B | Received in heart per minute | |
C | Pumped by each ventricle per minute | |
D | Pumped by left atrium per minute | |
Question 6 | ||
Christmas disease is also known as
A | Haemophilia B |
B | AIDS |
C | Haemophilia A |
D | Haemolytic jaundice |
Question 7 |
Major part of the plasma consists of
A | Organic substances | |
B | Inorganic substances | |
C | Blood cells | |
D | Water | |
Question 8 | ||
Compared to blood our lymph has
A | More RBCs and less WBCs |
B | No plasma |
C | Plasma without proteins |
D | More WBCs and no RBCs |
Question 9 |
Diastole occurs due to
A | Nerve impulse from vagus | |
B | Elastic recoil of arteries | |
C | Relaxation of heart muscles | |
D | All of them | |
Question 10 | ||
During diastole
A | Blood leaves ventricle |
B | Blood leaves heart |
C | Blood enters in heart |
D | Blood enters lungs |
Question 11 |
During storage of blood anticoagulant added to it may be
A | Sodium oxalate | |
B | Sodium chloride | |
C | Potassium chloride | |
D | Thromboplastin | |
Question 12 | ||
Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) does not contain
A | Factor VII |
B | Platelets |
C | Frozen protoplasm |
D | Gamma globulins |
Question 13 |
Globulins contained in human blood plasma are primarily involved in
A | Clotting of blood | |
B | Defence mechanisms of body | |
C | Osmotic balance of body fluids | |
D | Oxygen transport in the blood | |
Question 14 | ||
Graveyard in RBCs is
A | Liver |
B | Spleen |
C | Kidney |
D | Lymph glands |
Question 15 |
Haemoglobin oxygen dissociation curve is
A | Straight line |
B | Constant |
C | Sigmoid |
D | Parabolic |
Circulation of Body Fluids: Quiz – 3
Question 1 |
Hardening of the arteries due to deposition of cholesterol is called
A | Rhinitis | |
B | Atherosclerosis | |
C | Thrombosis | |
D | Stenosis | |
Question 2 | ||
The most popularly known blood grouping is the ABO grouping. It is named ABO and not ABC because ‘‘O’’ in it refers to having
A | No antigens A and B on RBCs |
B | Other antigens besides A and B on RBCs |
C | Overdominance of this type on the genes for A and B types |
D | One antibody only–either anti–A or anti–B on the RBCs |
Question 3 |
Largest amount of urea is normally carried by
A | Hepatic portal vein | |
B | Renal artery | |
C | Hepatic artery | |
D | Hepatic vein | |
Question 4 | ||
The kind of epithelium which forms the inner walls of blood vessels is
A | Squamous epithelium |
B | Cuboidal epithelium |
C | Columnar epithelium |
D | Ciliated columnar epithelium |
Question 5 |
Heparin is
A | Anti-allergic | |
B | Blood diluter | |
C | Anticoagulant | |
D | Antiseptic | |
Question 6 | ||
Murmur is a disorder of
A | SA node |
B | AV node |
C | Heart valves |
D | Pulmonary vein |
Question 7 |
Heparin is produced by
A | Liver cells | |
B | Plasma cells | |
C | Blood cells | |
D | Spleen cells | |
Question 8 | ||
Hepatic portal system connects
A | Liver to digestive system |
B | Kidney to liver |
C | Digestive system to liver |
D | Liver to kidneys |
Question 9 |
In a cardiac output of 5250 ml/minute, with 75 heart beats per minute, the stroke volume is
A | 80 ml | |
B | 70 ml | |
C | 60 ml | |
D | 55 ml | |
Question 10 |
In a standard ECG which one of the following alphabets is the correct representation of the respectively activity of the human heart?
A | P-depolarisation of atria |
B | R-repolarisation of ventricles |
C | S-start of systole |
D | T-end of diastole |
Question 11 |
In a typical heart, if EDV is 120 ml of blood and ESV is 50 ml of blood, the stroke volume (SV) is
A | 120 – 50 = 70 ml | |
B | 120 + 50 = 170 ml | |
C | 120 x 50 = 6000 ml | |
D | 120 ÷ 50 = 2.4 ml | |
Question 12 | ||
In developing embryo RBCs are formed in
A | Lymph node |
B | Bone marrow |
C | Liver |
D | Spleen |
Question 13 |
Oxygenated blood occurs in
A | Pulmonary artery | |
B | Right atrium | |
C | Right ventricle | |
D | Pulmonary vein | |
Question 14 | ||
In ECG, P-R interval corresponds to
A | Time interval between onset of ventricular contraction |
B | Time delay in A-V node |
C | S-A nodal conduction time |
D | Increased ventricular contraction |
Question 15 |
In higher vertebrates, SA node helps in
A | Opening of tricuspid valve |
B | Initiation of heart beat |
C | Conduction of blood |
D | Opening of bicuspid valve |
Circulation of Body Fluids: Quiz – 4
Question 1 |
Atrioventricular valves are supported by strands of connective tissue called ______.
A | endocardium | |
B | myocardium | |
C | chordae tendineae | |
D | cardiac fibers | |
Question 2 | ||
Which one of the followings refers to blood cancer characterized by uncontrolled proliferation of abnormal/immature white blood cells in the bone marrow?
A | Hypertension |
B | Atherosclerosis |
C | Leukemia |
D | Pulmonary embolism |
Question 3 |
Consider the following statements about biomedical technologies:
(a) During open heart surgery blood is circulated in the heart-lung machine
(b) Blockage in coronary arteries is removed by angiography
(c) Computerised Axial Tomography (CAT) shows detailed internal structure as seen in a section of body
(d) X-ray provides clear and detailed images of organs like prostate glands and lungs
Which two of the above statements are correct?
A | (a) and (b) | |
B | (b) and (d) | |
C | (c) and (d) | |
D | (a) and (c) | |
Question 4 | ||
Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components is correctly interpreted below?
A | Peak P and Peak R together – systolic and diastolic blood pressures |
B | Peak P – Initiation of left atrial contraction only |
C | Complex QRS – One complete pulse |
D | Peak T – Initiation of total cardiac contraction |
Question 5 |
Which type of white blood cells are concerned with the release of histamine and the natural anti coagulant heparin?
A | Monocytes | |
B | Neutrophils | |
C | Basophils | |
D | Eosinophils | |
Question 6 | ||
What is true about RBCs in humans?
A | They do not carry CO2 at all |
B | They carry about 20-25 percent of CO2 |
C | They transport 99.5 percent of O2 |
D | They transport about 80 percent oxygen only and the rest 20 percent of it is transported in dissolved state in blood plasma |
Question 7 |
If due to some injury the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid valve of the human heart is partially non-functional, what will be the immediate effect?
A | The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced | |
B | The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down | |
C | The pacemaker will stop working | |
D | The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium | |
Question 8 | ||
The cells lining the blood vessels belong to the category of
A | Columnar epithelium |
B | Connective tissue |
C | Smooth muscle tissue |
D | Squamous epithelium |
Question 9 |
In humans, blood passes from the post caval to the diastolic right atrium of heart due to:
A | Pressure difference between the post caval and atrium | |
B | Pushing open of the venous valves | |
C | Suction pull | |
D | Stimulation of the sino auricular node | |
Question 10 | ||
The most active phagocytic white blood cells are:
A | Neutrophils and monocytes |
B | Neutrophils and eosinophils |
C | Lymphocytes and macrophages |
D | Eosinophils and lymphocytes |
Question 11 |
To obtain a standard ECG, a patient is connected to the machine with three electrodes
A | One to each wrist and to the left ankle | |
B | One to each ankle and to the left wrist | |
C | One to each wrist and to the left chest region | |
D | One to each ankle and to the left chest region | |
Question 12 | ||
The blood does not clot inside the body because of :
A | Oxygenation of blood |
B | Movement of blood |
C | Heparin in blood |
D | Absence of fibrinogen in blood |
Question 13 |
Which is the correct sequence of arrangement of types of W.B.C. in decreasing order in terms of number per mm3 of human blood?
A | Eosinophils > Basophils > Neutrophils | |
B | Basophils > Eosinophils > Neutrophils | |
C | Neutrophils > Eosinophils > Basophils | |
D | Eosinophils > Neutrophils > Basophils | |
Question 14 | ||
The blood calcium level is lowered by the deficiency of:
A | Calcitonin |
B | Parathormone |
C | Thyroxine |
D | Both Calcitonin and Parathormone |
Question 15 |
The average diameter of Red Blood Corpuscles of man is
A | 7.2 μm |
B | 8.1 μm |
C | 9.2 μm |
D | 10.3 μm |
Excretory Products and their Elimination: MCQs Quiz – 01
Question 1 |
_______ facilitates reabsorption of water by the nephron.
A | Loop of the nephron | |
B | Medulla | |
C | Cortex | |
D | Pelvis | |
Question 2 | ||
A Brush border is formed in
A | Distal convoluted tubule |
B | Proximal convoluted tubule |
C | Bowman’s capsule |
D | Loop of Henle |
Question 3 |
Ability of the kidneys for the production of concentrated urine is dependent on _______.
A | Active transport | |
B | Passive transport | |
C | Countercurrent mechanism | |
D | Diffusion | |
Question 4 | ||
Accumulation of urea and other waste substances in the blood is called
A | Hemodialysis |
B | Cystitis |
C | Uremia |
D | Urethritis |
Question 5 |
Bile manufactured by liver is stored within the ________.
A | Urinary bladder | |
B | Gallbladder | |
C | Liver | |
D | Lungs | |
Question 6 | ||
Certain ions and molecules, for examples H+ and penicillin are secreted from the peritubular capillary network into the _______.
A | Convoluted tubules |
B | Peritubular capillaries |
C | Loops of Henle |
D | Collecting ducts |
Question 7 |
Correct sequence of urine formation is
A | Filtration, reabsorption, secretion | |
B | Secretion, reabsorption, filtration | |
C | Reabsorption, secretion, filtration | |
D | Reabsorption, filtration secretion | |
Question 8 | ||
Creatinine the waste product closely regulated by the brain and kidneys is the end product of the metabolism of _____.
A | Ammonia |
B | Muscle |
C | Nucleotide |
D | Anaerobic |
Question 9 |
Glomerular capsule and Convoluted tubules always lie within the _______.
A | Renal pelvis | |
B | Renal medulla | |
C | Renal cortex | |
D | None of these | |
Question 10 | ||
Glomerular filtrate passes from glomerular capsule into the ______
A | Loop of the nephron |
B | Proximal convoluted tubule |
C | Glomerular capsule |
D | Convoluted tubule |
Question 11 |
If a man takes large amount of protein, he is likely to excrete more amount of
A | Glucose | |
B | Urea and uric acid | |
C | Water | |
D | Salts | |
Question 12 | ||
If a person undergoes a prolonged fasting then his urine will be found to contain higher levels of
A | Ketones |
B | Amino acids |
C | Fats |
D | Glucose |
Question 13 |
In the kidneys, osmotic pressure controls ______.
A | Glucose absorption | |
B | Sodium absorption | |
C | Water absorption | |
D | none of these | |
Question 14 | ||
Most of the reabsorption of salts and water occurs in the ______.
A | Distal convoluted tubule |
B | Loops of Henle |
C | Proximal convoluted tubule |
D | Collecting tubule |
Question 15 |
Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to kidney function regulation?
A | During summer when body loses lot of water by evaporation, the release of ADH is suppressed |
B | When someone drinks lot of water, ADH release is suppressed |
C | Exposure to cold temperature stimulates ADH release |
D | An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates formation of Angiotensin II |
Excretory Products and their Elimination: MCQs Quiz – 02
Question 1 |
The basic functional unit of human kidney is
A | Henle’s loop | |
B | Nephron | |
C | Nephridia | |
D | Pyramid | |
Question 2 | ||
Ornithine cycle (also known as the urea cycle) refers to the sequence of biochemical reactions taking place in the
A | Urinary bladder |
B | Liver |
C | Pancreas |
D | Stomach |
Question 3 |
The Bowman’s capsules are found in
A | Cortex | |
B | Medulla | |
C | Convoluted tubule | |
D | Loop of Henle | |
Question 4 | ||
The hollow space at the centre of kidney where urine is collected after its formation is called
A | Renal pelvis |
B | Glomerulus |
C | Distal convoluted tubule |
D | Urethra |
Question 5 |
The lungs are important organs for excretion of
A | Ammonia | |
B | Water | |
C | Carbon dioxide | |
D | Urea | |
Question 6 | ||
The main nitrogen-containing waste excreted in urine is
A | Ammonia |
B | Creatine phosphate |
C | Nucleotides |
D | Urea |
Question 7 |
The muscular tubes which take the urine from the kidneys to the bladder are
A | Urinary bladders | |
B | Ureters | |
C | Urethras | |
D | Nephrons | |
Question 8 | ||
The principal nitrogenous excretory compound in humans is synthesised
A | In the liver but eliminated mostly through kidneys |
B | In kidneys but eliminated mostly through liver |
C | In kidneys as well as eliminated by kidneys |
D | In liver and also eliminated by the same through bile |
Question 9 |
The process of dilution of urine takes place in
A | Distal tubule | |
B | Collecting tubule | |
C | Loop of Henle | |
D | Proximal tubule | |
Question 10 | ||
The renal medulla consists of cone-shaped tissue masses called _______.
A | Renal pyramid |
B | Adipose capsule |
C | Renal cortex |
D | Renal pelvis |
Question 11 |
The size of filtration slits of Glomerulus are approximately
A | 10 nm | |
B | 15 nm | |
C | 20 nm | |
D | 25 nm | |
Question 12 |
The term haematuria is used to describe
A | Blood cancer |
B | Presence of Red Blood cells in Urine |
C | Internal bleeding |
D | Blood poisoning |
Question 13 |
The yellow pigment derived from heme breakdown and excreted by kidneys is
A | Uric acid | |
B | Urochrome | |
C | Cholesterol | |
D | Melanin | |
Question 14 | ||
Urea is produced as an excretory substance in human body in
A | Urinary bladder |
B | Liver |
C | Kidney |
D | Rectum |
Question 15 |
Which one of the following statements in regard to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct?
A | Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes |
B | Descending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to water |
C | Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing HCO3 |
D | Nearly 99 percent of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules |
Excretory Products and their Elimination: MCQs Quiz – 03
Question 1 |
What is reabsorbed through loop of Henle?
A | Glucose | |
B | CO2 | |
C | Potassium | |
D | Water | |
Question 2 | ||
Why do we urinate more in wet and cold months?
A | Kidney becomes more active |
B | Increase of ADH secretion |
C | Sweating is much reduced |
D | Impairment of water absorption in nephron |
Question 3 |
When the infection invades the urinary bladder, it is called
A | Cystitis | |
B | Urethritis | |
C | Pyelonephritis | |
D | Hemodialysis | |
Question 4 | ||
When the infection is localized in the urethra, it is called
A | Urethritis |
B | Cystitis |
C | Pyelonephritis |
D | Hemodialysis |
Question 5 |
Which of the following hormones is involved in regulating the water-salt balance of the blood?
A | Cortisone | |
B | Aldosterone | |
C | ADH | |
D | ANH | |
Question 6 | ||
Which of the following hormones promotes the excretion of potassium ions and the reabsorption of sodium ions?
A | Aldosterone |
B | Rennin |
C | ADH |
D | None of these |
Question 7 |
Which of the following leads to the secretion of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex?
A | Chymotrypsin | |
B | Trypsin | |
C | Renin | |
D | None of these | |
Question 8 | ||
Which of the following structures facilitates easy passage of small molecules to the glomerular capsule?
A | Loop of the nephron |
B | Peritubular capillary |
C | Convoluted tubule |
D | Glomerulus |
Question 9 |
Which of the two waste products are removed from the blood in liver by Ornithine cycle?
A | Urea and CO2 | |
B | Uric acid and ammonia | |
C | Ammonia and CO2 | |
D | Urea and ammonia | |
Question 10 | ||
Which one of following correctly explains the function of a specific part of a human nephron?
A | Afferent arteriole : Carries the blood away from the glomerulus towards renal vein |
B | Podocytes : Create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the Bowman’s capsule |
C | Henle’s loop : Most reabsorption of the major substances from the glomerular filtrate |
D | Distal convoluted tubule: Reabsorption of K+ ions into the surrounding blood capillaries |
Question 11 |
Which one of the following is not a part of a renal pyramid?
A | Loops of Henle | |
B | Peritubular capillaries | |
C | Convoluted tubules | |
D | Collecting ducts | |
Question 12 | ||
Which one of the following secreted by posterior pituitary regulates water retention by the kidneys?
A | Antidiuretic hormone |
B | Aldosterone |
C | Thyroxine |
D | Erythropoietin |
Question 13 |
Volume of urine is regulated by
A | Aldosterone | |
B | Aldosterone and testosterone | |
C | ADH | |
D | Aldosterone and ADH | |
Question 14 | ||
One of the followings is a nonsteroid hormones secreted by the atria of the heart and helps regulate blood pressure.
A | Erythropoietin |
B | Antidiuretic hormone |
C | Thyroxine |
D | Atrial natriuretic hormone |
Question 15 |
What will happen if the stretch receptors of the urinary bladder wall are totally removed?
A | There will be no micturition |
B | Urine will not collect in the bladder |
C | Micturition will continue |
D | Urine will continue to collect normally in the bladder |
Locomotion and Movement | Movement and Support in Humans: MCQs Quiz – 1
Question 1 |
Which one of the following membranes secretes a watery fluid that lubricates and cushions the joint?
A | Tendons | |
B | Synovial membrane | |
C | Ligaments | |
D | Cartilage | |
Question 2 | ||
Which one of the following items gives its correct total number?
A | Cervical vertebrae in humans – 8 |
B | Floating ribs in humans – 4 |
C | Amino acids found in proteins – 16 |
D | Types of diabetes – 3 |
Question 3 |
Which one of the following is an example of an imperfect joint?
A | Elbow joint | |
B | Pubic symphysis | |
C | Suture | |
D | Ball and socket joint | |
Question 4 | ||
Which one of the following is a sesamoid bone?
A | Pectoral girdle |
B | Pterygoid |
C | Pelvis |
D | Patella |
Question 5 |
Which one of the following bones is the only movable portion of the skull?
A | Maxilla | |
B | Mandible | |
C | Frontal bone | |
D | Zygomatic bone | |
Question 6 | ||
Which of these is the contractile protein of a muscle?
A | Tubulin |
B | Tropomyosin |
C | Myosin |
D | All of these |
Question 7 |
The expanded portions of the ______ are calcium storage sites.
A | Sarcoplasmic reticulum | |
B | Sarcoplasm | |
C | Neuromuscular junctions | |
D | Myofibril | |
Question 8 | ||
Which of the following muscles draw the lower jaw, tongue and the head backward?
A | Abductor |
B | Retractor |
C | Proctor |
D | All of these |
Question 9 |
Which one of the following pairs is wrong about cardiac muscles?
A | Location – only in the heart | |
B | Function – Pumping of blood | |
C | Gap junctions – No | |
D | Striated – Yes | |
Question 10 | ||
Which of the following is striped muscle but not voluntary?
A | Wrist muscles |
B | Shank |
C | Cardiac muscles |
D | Abdominal |
Question 11 |
Which one of the following is correct pairing of a body part and the kind of muscle tissue that moves it?
A | Iris – Involuntary smooth muscle | |
B | Heart wall – Involuntary unstriated muscle | |
C | Biceps of upper arm – Smooth muscle fibres | |
D | Abdominal wall – Smooth muscle | |
Question 12 | ||
Which of the following is a skull bone?
A | Pterygoid |
B | Arytenoid |
C | Cricoid |
D | None of these |
Question 13 |
Which one of the following is the correct matching of three items and their grouping category?
Items | Group | ||
Cytosine, uracil, thiamine | Pyrimidines | ||
Malleus, incus, cochlea | Ear ossicles | ||
Ilium, ischium, pubis | Coxal bones of pelvic girdle | ||
Actin, myosin, rhodopsin | Muscle proteins | ||
A | 1 | ||
B | 2 | ||
C | 3 | ||
D | 4 | ||
Question 14 | |||
Which of the following bones make up the structure of the hand?
A | Metacarpal |
B | Tarsal |
C | Carpal |
D | Phalanges |
Question 15 |
Which muscle is adapted to be highly resistant to fatigue?
A | Cardiac |
B | Striped |
C | Unstriped |
D | Voluntary |
Locomotion and Movement | Movement and Support in Humans: MCQs Quiz – 2
Question 1 |
______ connect the ends of bones together.
A | Ligaments | |
B | Tendons | |
C | Muscles | |
D | cartilages | |
Question 2 | ||
Which kind of joint (the sutures of the cranium) is essentially immovable?
A | Cartilaginous joint |
B | Fibrous joint |
C | Hinge joint |
D | Ball and socket joint |
Question 3 |
Which joint occurs between humerus and radioulna?
A | Ball and socket joint | |
B | Sliding | |
C | Pivot | |
D | Hinge joint | |
Question 4 | ||
Which of the following is a wrist bone?
A | Pubis |
B | Ulna |
C | Carpal |
D | Femur |
Question 5 |
Which is the largest synovial joint of the human body?
A | Knee joint | |
B | Shoulder joint | |
C | Elbow joint | |
D | Hip joint | |
Question 6 | ||
Ilium, ischium, and pubis join at the ______ to form coxal bone.
A | Acetabulum |
B | Ilium |
C | Sternum |
D | Glenoid cavity |
Question 7 |
Which is a part of pectoral girdle?
A | Acetabulum | |
B | Ilium | |
C | Sternum | |
D | Glenoid cavity | |
Question 8 | ||
What is the ion necessary for muscle contraction?
A | Cl |
B | Ca |
C | Na |
D | K |
Question 9 |
Where is the Ball and socket joint found?
A | Shoulder | |
B | Atlas and Axis | |
C | Atlas and Head | |
D | Knee | |
Question 10 | ||
When bone becomes hard, the osteocytes are trapped in hollow chambers called
A | Osteoblasts and osteoclasts |
B | Red bone marrow |
C | Cartilage |
D | Lacunae |
Question 11 |
Voluntary muscular coordination is under control of
A | Cerebellum | |
B | Cerebral hemisphere | |
C | Cerebrum | |
D | Medulla oblongata. | |
Question 12 | ||
Vertebral column extends from the skull to
A | Pectoral girdle |
B | Pelvis |
C | Frontal bone |
D | Phalanges |
Question 13 |
Which molecule provides ATP during muscle contraction?
A | Creatine phosphate | |
B | Hemoglobin | |
C | Myoglobin | |
D | Myosin | |
Question 14 | ||
Total number of bones in the hind limb is
A | 30 |
B | 15 |
C | 20 |
D | 24 |
Question 15 |
Three of the following pairs of the human skeletal parts are correctly matched with their respective inclusive skeletal category and one pair is not matched. Identify the non-matching pair.
Pairs of skeletal parts | Category | |||
(1) | Humerus and ulna | Appendicular skeleton | ||
(2) | Malleus and stapes | Ear ossicles | ||
(3) | Sternum and Ribs | Axial skeleton | ||
(4) | Clavicle and Glenoid cavity | Pelvic girdle | ||
A | 1 | |||
B | 2 | |||
C | 3 | |||
D | 4 | |||
Locomotion and Movement | Movement and Support in Humans: MCQs Quiz – 3
Question 1 |
How many bones are there in the axial part of a human skeleton?
A | 180 | |
B | 120 | |
C | 210 | |
D | 80 | |
Question 2 |
In a new born baby, the flat bones in its skull are separated by large spaces filled with fibrous connective tissue. These soft spots are called
A | Fontanels |
B | Chitin |
C | Bursae |
D | Menisci |
Question 3 |
The total number of bones in human skull are
A | 30 | |
B | 29 | |
C | 25 | |
D | 106 | |
Question 4 |
The segment of a myofibril between two Z-lines is called
A | Sarcomere |
B | Sarcoplasm |
C | Sarcolemma |
D | Sarconema |
Question 5 |
There are ______ of ribs in human body.
A | 20 pairs | |
B | 10 pairs | |
C | 12 pairs | |
D | 8 pairs | |
Question 6 |
The number of ‘floating ribs’ in human body is
A | 2 pairs |
B | 3 pairs |
C | 5 pairs |
D | 6 pairs |
Question 7 |
The Junction between a nerve cell and the motor unit is called
A | Creatine phosphate | |
B | Synapse | |
C | Neuromuscular junction | |
D | Sarcomeres | |
Question 8 | ||
What joint is found between the ribs and sternum?
A | Cartilaginous |
B | Hinge |
C | Angular |
D | Fibrous |
Question 9 |
The joint between the atlas and axis is
A | Ball and socket | |
B | Saddle | |
C | Pivot | |
D | Angular | |
Question 10 | ||
The elements associated with muscle contraction are
A | Mg and Ca |
B | Mg and Cl |
C | Na and Ca |
D | Ca and K |
Question 11 |
The clavicle articulates with _________ of scapula.
A | Acromion process | |
B | Glenoid cavity | |
C | Acetabulum cavity | |
D | Ball and socket joint | |
Question 12 | ||
The bones that attach the arm to the axial skeleton (composed of the clavicle and scapula) is called
A | Cranium |
B | Pelvic girdle |
C | Pectoral girdle |
D | Scapula |
Question 13 |
The bone-forming cells that secrete the organic matrix of bone and promote the deposition of calcium salts into the matrix are
A | Osteoclasts | |
B | Osteoblasts | |
C | Osteocyte | |
D | Chondroblasts | |
Question 14 | ||
Tendons connect ______ at a joint.
A | Bone to bone |
B | Muscle to muscle |
C | Muscle to bone |
D | Muscle to blood vessel |
Question 15 |
Synovial joints occur between
A | Tail vertebrae |
B | Humerus and ulna |
C | Two skull bones |
D | Two vertebrae |
Locomotion and Movement | Movement and Support in Humans: MCQs Quiz – 4
Question 1 |
Synovial joint is
A | Pivot joint | |
B | Ball and socket joint | |
C | Hinge joint | |
D | All of these | |
Question 2 | ||
Which of the following gives off synovial fluid as a lubricant?
A | Cartilage |
B | Synovial membrane |
C | Bones |
D | All of these |
Question 3 |
Suspensory ligament is present in
A | Eye | |
B | Brain | |
C | Ear | |
D | Kidney | |
Question 4 |
Surface for attachment of tongue is
A | Palatine |
B | Pterygoid |
C | Sphenoid |
D | Hyoid apparatus |
Question 5 |
Source of energy in muscle contraction is
A | ATP | |
B | GTP | |
C | ADP | |
D | Creatine phosphate | |
Question 6 | ||
Which of the following is the smallest muscle in human body?
A | Sartorius |
B | Stapedius |
C | Stapes |
D | Mandibular |
Question 7 |
A sarcomere extends between two dark vertical lines called ______.
A | I band | |
B | Z line | |
C | Myofilament | |
D | None of these | |
Question 8 | ||
Ribs are connected to ______ .
A | Clavicle |
B | Sternum |
C | Scapula |
D | Ilium |
Question 9 |
Which protein is present in cartilage?
A | Chondrin | |
B | Collagen | |
C | Ossein | |
D | None of these | |
Question 10 | ||
Origin of striated muscle is form which germ layer of embryo:
A | Ectoderm |
B | Endoderm |
C | Mesoderm |
D | All of these |
Question 11 |
Which one of the skull bones is movable?
A | Vomer | |
B | Maxillary | |
C | Mandible | |
D | All of these | |
Question 12 | ||
One of the following is true of muscle contraction.
A | H-zone expands |
B | I-band expands |
C | A-Band remains constant |
D | The sarcomeres expands |
Question 13 |
Which one of the following is referred as either fingers or toes?
A | Tarsals | |
B | Digits | |
C | Metacarpals | |
D | Carpals | |
Question 14 | ||
One of the following is not a biological function of skeleton?
A | Support |
B | Storage |
C | Excretion |
D | Movement |
Question 15 |
In a synovial joint, the two bones are fastened together and stabilized by ______.
A | Menisci |
B | Ligaments |
C | Tendons |
D | Synovia |
Locomotion and Movement | Movement and Support in Humans: MCQs Quiz – 5
Question 1 |
One of the following bones lies in front of the sphenoid and helps forming the orbits and the nasal septum.
A | Zygotmatic bone | |
B | Lacrimal bone | |
C | Occipital bone | |
D | Ethmoid bone | |
Question 2 | ||
Number of vertebrae in human skeleton is
A | 33 |
B | 38 |
C | 40 |
D | 45 |
Question 3 |
Name the joints between the ribs and sternum and the pubic symphysis that tend to be slightly movable.
A | Cartilaginous joints | |
B | Fibrous joints | |
C | Hinge joints | |
D | Ball and socket joints | |
Question 4 | ||
Myoglobin occurs in
A | Cardiac muscle fibres |
B | White muscle fibres |
C | Red muscle fibre |
D | both (A) and (B) |
Question 5 |
Muscular and nervous excitability is lowered by which of the following?
A | Na | |
B | Mg | |
C | Ca | |
D | K | |
Question 6 |
Low Ca++ in the body fluid may be the cause of
A | Gout |
B | Tetany |
C | Anaemia |
D | Angina pectoris |
Question 7 |
Largest bone in human body is
A | Ulna | |
B | Femur | |
C | Humerus | |
D | Tibia | |
Question 8 | ||
Joint between femur and acetabulum is called
A | Pivot |
B | Sliding |
C | Ball and socket joint |
D | Hinge joint |
Question 9 |
Joint between bones of human skull is
A | Hinge joint | |
B | Cartilaginous joint | |
C | Synovial joint | |
D | Fibrous joint | |
Question 10 | ||
Ions that must be present for binding the cross bridges is
A | K+ |
B | Na+ |
C | Ca+ |
D | None of these |
Question 11 |
Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system:
A | Myasthenia gravis – Auto immune disorders which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments | |
B | Gout – inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of calcium | |
C | Muscular dystrophy – age related shortening of muscles | |
D | Osteoporosis – decrease in bone mass and higher chances of fractures with advancing age | |
Question 12 | ||
Hinge joint occurs between
A | Humerus and pectoral girdle |
B | Femur and pelvic girdle |
C | Humerus and radioulnar |
D | Skull and atlas |
Question 13 |
Glenoid cavity is present in
A | Xiphisternum | |
B | Pectoral girdle | |
C | Pelvic girdle | |
D | Cartilage | |
Question 14 | ||
Functional unit of striated muscle is
A | I band |
B | Myofilament |
C | Z line |
D | Sarcomere |
Question 15 |
Floating ribs in human body are
A | 2 pairs |
B | 3 pairs |
C | 4 pairs |
D | 5 pairs |
Locomotion and Movement | Movement and Support in Humans: MCQs Quiz – 6
Question 1 |
Fabella are the sesamoid bones associated with
A | Elbow joint | |
B | Wrist joint | |
C | Knee joint | |
D | Neck joint | |
Question 2 | ||
Elbow joint is an example of
A | Ball and socket joint |
B | Pivot joint |
C | Hinge joint |
D | Gliding joint |
Question 3 |
Cori’s cycle operates in
A | Cartilage | |
B | Muscle | |
C | Liver | |
D | Liver and muscle | |
Question 4 | ||
Bones formed by ossification of a tendon is called
A | Dermal bone |
B | Sesamoid bone |
C | Membrane bone |
D | Cartilage |
Question 5 |
Autorhythmicity is a special property of the muscles of the
A | Heart | |
B | Intestine | |
C | Liver | |
D | Kidney | |
Question 6 | ||
ATPase enzyme essential for muscle contraction is found in
A | Actinin |
B | Myosin |
C | Troponin |
D | Actin |
Question 7 |
Astragalus and calcaneus occur in
A | Shoulder | |
B | Forelimb | |
C | Hip | |
D | Hindlimb | |
Question 8 | ||
Ankle joint is
A | Gliding joint |
B | Hinge joint |
C | Ball and socket joint |
D | Pivot joint |
Question 9 |
A sprain is due to stretched or torn ______.
A | Nerves | |
B | Muscles | |
C | Ligaments | |
D | Tendons | |
Question 10 | ||
Acromion process is found in
A | Pectoral girdle |
B | Humerus |
C | Pelvic girdle |
D | None of these |
Question 11 |
Acetabulum is present in ______ joint.
A | Shoulder | |
B | Elbow | |
C | Hip | |
D | Knee | |
Question 12 |
One of the following is a vertebrate bone and directly develops from mesenchyme.
A | Dermal bone |
B | Endochondral bone |
C | Replacing bone |
D | None of these |
Question 13 |
A skeletal muscle which decreases the angle between two bones and bends a joint is
A | Flexor | |
B | Abductor | |
C | Extensor | |
D | Adductor | |
Question 14 |
______ acts as a shock absorber to cushion when tibia and femur come together.
A | Tendon |
B | Cartilage |
C | Ligament |
D | Disc |
Question 15 |
Zygomatic bones are found in
A | Skull |
B | Pectoral girdle |
C | Pelvic girdle |
D | Sternum |
Locomotion and Movement | Movement and Support in Humans: MCQs Quiz – 7
Question 1 |
Secretion of osteoid by osteoblasts forms ______.
A | Marrow | |
B | Cartilage | |
C | Matrix | |
D | Canaliculi | |
Question 2 | ||
The supportive skeletal structures in the human external ears and in the nose tip are examples of ______.
A | Ligament |
B | Areolar tissue |
C | Bone |
D | Cartilage |
Question 3 |
The two protein molecules, closely associated with actin filaments are ______ and ______.
A | actin and myosin | |
B | actin and tropomyosin | |
C | troponin and tropomyosin | |
D | tubulin and tropomyosin | |
Question 4 | ||
Cells and their functions are matched below. Which is the correct option?
A | Osteoblasts – bone-forming cells |
B | Osteoclasts – bone-absorbing cells |
C | Osteocytes – Cartilage-forming cells |
D | Both (A) and (B) are correct |
Question 5 |
Thoracic cage of man is formed of
A | Ribs, sternum and thoracic vertebrae | |
B | Ribs and thoracic vertebrae | |
C | Ribs, sternum and lumbar vertebrae | |
D | Ribs and sternum | |
Question 6 | ||
The type of muscles present in our
A | Thigh are striated and voluntary |
B | Upper arm are smooth muscle fibres fusiform in shape |
C | Heart are involuntary and unstriated smooth muscles |
D | Intestine are striated and involuntary |
Question 7 |
Which one of the following statement is true about spongy bone?
A | Unorganized appearance | |
B | Lighter than compact bone | |
C | Surrounds the bone marrow cavity | |
D | All of these are correct | |
Question 8 | ||
Motor neurons electrically stimulate nearby muscle fibers at ______.
A | Creatine phosphate |
B | Actin filament |
C | Neuromuscular junction |
D | Cross-bridges |
Question 9 |
Chemical ions responsible for muscle contraction are
A | Na+ and Ca2+ | |
B | Na+ and K+ | |
C | Ca2+ and K+ | |
D | Ca2+ and Mg2+ | |
Question 10 | ||
Assertion: Knee joint is the hinge type of joint. Reason: Femur, patella and fibula are associated with knee joint.
A | Assertion and Reason both are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion |
B | Assertion and Reason both are correct but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion |
C | Assertion is correct but Reason is wrong |
D | Assertion is wrong but Reason is correct |
Question 11 |
In hurdle race, what is the major energy source of the leg muscle?
A | Performed ATP | |
B | Glycolysis | |
C | Pyruvate and lactate | |
D | Oxidative metabolism | |
Question 12 | ||
Which one of the followings stands incorrect regarding skeletal muscle?
A | Responsible for voluntary movement |
B | Contract and expand slowly |
C | Cell fibers have multiple nuclei |
D | Stimulated by central nervous system |
Question 13 |
Yellow bone marrow, in the medullary cavity of the diaphysis is primarily ______.
A | Collagen fibers, made of protein | |
B | Bone-forming and bone-absorbing cells | |
C | Fat that can be utilized for energy | |
D | None of these | |
Question 14 | ||
Statements about the mechanism of muscle contraction are given below:
- Acetylcholine is released when the neural signal reaches the motor end plate.
- Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by CNS via a sensory neuron.
III. During muscle contraction isotropic band gets elongated.
- Repeated activation of the muscles can lead to lactic acid accumulation.
Identify the correct statements.
A | I and IV are correct |
B | I and III are correct |
C | II and III are correct |
D | I, Il and III are correct |
Question 15 |
Match the following and choose the correct option.
Type Synovial Joint | Bone Involved | |
a. Ball and socket | 1. Carpal and metacarpal of thumb | |
b. Hinge | 2. Atlas and axis | |
c. Pivot | 3. Frontal and parietal | |
d. Saddle | 4. Knee | |
5. Humerus and pectoral girdle | ||
A | a – 5, b – 4, c – 2, d – 1 | |
B | a – 1, b – 3, c – 4, d – 5 | |
C | a – 5, b – 4, c – 3, d – 1 | |
D | a – 1, b – 2, c – 5, d – 4 |
Human Endocrine System: MCQs Quiz – 1
Question 1 |
Concentration of the urine is controlled by ______
A | MSH | |
B | ADH | |
C | Oxytocin | |
D | ACTH | |
Question 2 | ||
Damage to thymus in children may lead to
A | Loss of antibody mediated immunity |
B | Reduction in stem cell production |
C | Reduction of hemoglobin content of blood |
D | Loss of cell-mediated immunity |
Question 3 |
ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to release a group of hormones called ______.
A | Mineralocorticoid | |
B | Glucocorticoid | |
C | Endorphins | |
D | Glucagon | |
Question 4 | ||
Adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce ______.
A | Epinephrine |
B | Aldosterone |
C | Cortisol |
D | Testosterone |
Question 5 |
An enlarged thyroid is the result of ______ deficiency.
A | Calcium | |
B | Iodine | |
C | Iron | |
D | Phosphorus | |
Question 6 | ||
Anabolic steroids are ______ versions of testosterone.
A | Effective |
B | Synthetic |
C | Natural |
D | Ineffective |
Question 7 |
The hormone known to participate in metabolism of calcium and phosphorus is
A | Mineralocorticoids | |
B | Calcitonin | |
C | Glucagon | |
D | Glucocorticoids | |
Question 8 | ||
Chemical signals released by an organism that influence the behavior of other individuals of the same species are called ______.
A | Pheromone |
B | Insulin |
C | Androgen |
D | Steroid |
Question 9 |
Deficiency of adrenal cortex hormones results in
A | Tetany | |
B | Acromegaly | |
C | Addison disease | |
D | Cretinism | |
Question 10 | ||
During growth period release of too much growth hormone can lead to
A | Cretinism |
B | Acromegaly |
C | Gigantism |
D | Simmond’s disease |
Question 11 |
Endemic goitre is a state of
A | Increased thyroid function | |
B | Normal thyroid function | |
C | Decreased thyroid function | |
D | Moderate thyroid function | |
Question 12 | ||
Glucagon hormone is secreted by the ______.
A | Thyroid gland |
B | Adrenal gland |
C | Pituitary gland |
D | Pancreas |
Question 13 |
Hormone responsible for the secretion of milk after parturition
A | ICSH | |
B | Prolactin | |
C | ACTH | |
D | LH | |
Question 14 |
In addition to thyroxine (T4), triiodothyronine (T3), thyroid gland produces ______
A | Thyroid-stimulating hormone |
B | Adrenocorticotropic hormone |
C | Calcitonin |
D | Gonadotropic hormones |
Question 15 |
Given below is an incomplete table about certain hormones, their source glands and one major effect of each on the body in humans. Identify the correct option for the three blanks A, B and C
GLANDS | SECRETION | EFFECT ON BODY |
A | Oestrogen | Maintenance of secondary sexual characters |
Alpha cells of Islets of Langerhans |
B | Raises blood sugar level |
Anterior pituitary | C | Over secretion leads to gigantism |
A | B | C | |
(1) | Placenta | Glucagon | Calcitonin |
(2) | Ovary | Glucagon | Growth hormone |
(3) | Placenta | Insulin | Vasopressin |
(4) | Ovary | Insulin | Calcitonin |
A | 1 | ||
B | 2 | ||
C | 3 | ||
D | 4 |
Human Endocrine System: MCQs Quiz – 2
Question 1 |
Which one of the followings are male sex hormones?
A | Insulins | |
B | Aldosterones | |
C | Androgens | |
D | Pheromones | |
Question 2 | ||
In adults, insufficient thyroxine can lead to ______.
A | Goiter |
B | Tetany |
C | Cretinism |
D | Myxedema |
Question 3 |
In children, hypothyroidism (underactive thyroid gland) can lead to ______
A | Goiter | |
B | Acromegaly | |
C | Cretinism | |
D | Myxedema | |
Question 4 | ||
In Male the sex hormone that maintains sexual organs and secondary sex characteristics is
A | Progesterone |
B | Estrogen |
C | Testosterone |
D | Relaxin |
Question 5 |
In the body, both the blood sodium and potassium levels are regulated by _______.
A | Pheromones | |
B | Aldosterone | |
C | Cortisol | |
D | Androgens | |
Question 6 | ||
In which of the following pairs, the hormone of endocrine glands and its primary action is mismatched.
A | Calcitonin – Lower blood calcium levels |
B | Parathyroid – Raises blood calcium levels |
C | Somatostatin – Inhibits release of glucagon |
D | Melatonin – Regulates the rate of cellular metabolism |
Question 7 |
Islets of Langerhans are found in
A | Anterior Pituitary | |
B | Kidney Cortex | |
C | Spleen | |
D | Endocrine pancreas | |
Question 8 | ||
Name the condition when the concentration of Ketone body increases in urine
A | Acromegaly |
B | Diabetes mellitus |
C | Diabetes insipidus |
D | Cushing’s disease |
Question 9 |
Pituitary gland known as the ‘master’ endocrine gland is under the control of
A | Pineal gland | |
B | Adrenal gland | |
C | Hypothalamus | |
D | Thyroid gland | |
Question 10 | ||
Somatostatin
A | Stimulates glucagon release while inhibits insulin release |
B | Stimulates release of insulin and glucagon |
C | Inhibits release of insulin and glucagon |
D | Inhibits glucagon release while stimulates insulin release |
Question 11 |
cells of pancreas isd and aThe chemical nature of hormones secreted by
A | Glycolipid | |
B | Glycoprotein | |
C | Steroid | |
D | Polypeptide | |
Question 12 | ||
The endocrine gland which contributes to setting the body’s biological clock is the ______.
A | Pituitary gland |
B | Thymus gland |
C | Pineal gland |
D | Thyroid gland |
Question 13 |
In human adult females oxytocin
A | Causes strong uterine contractions during parturition | |
B | Is secreted by anterior pituitary | |
C | Stimulates growth of mammary glands | |
D | Stimulates pituitary to secrete vasopressin | |
Question 14 | ||
Match the source gland with its respective hormone as well as the function
Source gland | Hormone | Function | |||
(1) | Thyroid | Thyroxine | Regulates blood calcium level |
||
(2) | Anterior pituitary |
Oxytocin | Contraction of uterus muscles during child birth |
||
(3) | Posterior pituitary |
Vasopressin | Stimulates resorption of water in the distal tubules in the nephron |
||
(4) | Corpus luteum |
Estrogen | Supports pregnancy | ||
A | 1 | ||||
B | 2 | ||||
C | 3 | ||||
D | 4 | ||||
Question 15 |
The specific region of Hypothalamus, responsible for physiological sweat secretion, is
A | Para-ventricular nucleus |
B | Supra-Optic nucleus |
C | Median Eminence |
D | Pars Distalis |
Human Endocrine System: MCQs Quiz – 3
Question 1 |
The adrenal cortex produces ______.
A | Adrenaline | |
B | Calcitonin | |
C | Epinephrine | |
D | Aldosterone | |
Question 2 | ||
The primary androgen produced by males is ______.
A | Epinephrine |
B | Aldosterone |
C | Cortisol |
D | Testosterone |
Question 3 |
Which of the following hormone is chemically glycoprotein?
A | Growth hormone | |
B | Prolactin | |
C | Erythropoietin | |
D | Estrogen | |
Question 4 | ||
The hormone responsible for “Fight and Flight” response is
A | Adrenalin |
B | Thyroxine |
C | ADH |
D | Oxytocin |
Question 5 |
Which of the following hormones synchronizes circadian rhythms and may be involved in onset of puberty?
A | Thymopoietin | |
B | Thymosin | |
C | Melatonin | |
D | Parathyroid | |
Question 6 | ||
Which of the following is the function of Adrenaline?
A | Helps in gastric juice secretion |
B | Increases heart rate and blood pressure |
C | Increases blood calcium |
D | Helps in milk secretion |
Question 7 |
Which of the hormone(s) has effects on the stomach, pancreas, and gallbladder?
A | Secretin | |
B | Cholecystokinin | |
C | Gastrin | |
D | All of the above | |
Question 8 | ||
Which one of the following condition is resulted from excess GH in adults?
A | Cushing’s disease |
B | Acromegaly |
C | Hyperthyroidism |
D | Diabetes mellitus |
Question 9 |
Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
A | Insulin – Diabetes mellitus (disease) | |
B | Glucagon – Beta cells (source) | |
C | Somatostatin – Delta cells (source) | |
D | Corpus luteum – Relaxin (secretion) | |
Question 10 | ||
Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
A | Antidiuretic hormone – Kidneys |
B | Luteinizing hormone – Mammary glands |
C | Prolactin – Mammary glands |
D | Adrenocorticotropic hormone – Adrenal cortex |
Question 11 |
Which one of the following pairs of organs includes only the endocrine glands?
A | Adrenal and Ovary | |
B | Parathyroid and Adrenal | |
C | Pancreas and Parathyroid | |
D | Thymus and Testes | |
Question 12 | ||
Which one of the followings is the primary target organ of aldosterone?
A | Kidney |
B | Pancreas |
C | Liver |
D | Both (B) and (C) |
Question 13 |
The nerve centres which control the body temperature and the urge for eating are contained in
A | Thalamus | |
B | Hypothalamus | |
C | Pons | |
D | Cerebellum | |
Question 14 | ||
Which part of human brain is concerned with the regulation of body temperature?
A | Hypothalamus |
B | Medulla oblongata |
C | Cerebellum |
D | Cerebrum |
Question 15 |
Which one of the following is the correct matching of the events occurring during menstrual cycle?
A | Menstruation : breakdown of myometrium and ovum not fertilised |
B | Ovulation : LH and FSH attain peak level and sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone |
C | Proliferative phase : Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of Graafian follicle |
D | Development of corpus luteum : Secretory phase and increased secretion of progesterone |
Nervous system in humans: Neural Control and Coordination – MCQs Quiz – 1
Question 1 |
Neuroglial cells support and protect ______.
A | Muscle cells | |
B | Glands | |
C | Neurons | |
D | Nephrons | |
Question 2 | ||
______ is an abundant inhibitory neurotransmitter in CNS.
A | Adrenaline |
B | Acetylcholine |
C | GABA |
D | Noradrenaline |
Question 3 |
How many laminae are present in the grey matter of spinal cord?
A | Four | |
B | Six | |
C | Eight | |
D | Ten | |
Question 4 |
Hypothalamus and thalamus are in ______.
A | Cerebellum |
B | Cerebrum |
C | Limbic system |
D | Diencephalon |
Question 5 |
Which one of the followings is the function of parasympathetic nervous system?
A | Stimulates oil and sweat glands in the skin | |
B | Pupil constriction | |
C | Acceleration of heart beat | |
D | Contraction of hair muscles | |
Question 6 | ||
A short Gap in the myelin sheath around a nerve fiber is called ______.
A | Dendrite |
B | Axon terminal |
C | Node of Ranvier |
D | None of these |
Question 7 |
At a neuromuscular junction, synaptic vesicles discharge ______.
A | Acetylcholine | |
B | Epinephrine | |
C | Adrenaline | |
D | None of these | |
Question 8 | ||
Broca’s area in the left hemisphere is related to ______.
A | Receiving the impulses from eyes |
B | Speech |
C | Learning and reasoning |
D | Sensation of smell |
Question 9 |
Cocaine as a stimulant of the CNS interferes with the reuptake of ______ at synapses.
A | Acetylcholine | |
B | Dopamine | |
C | Oxygen | |
D | Epinephrine | |
Question 10 | ||
Functions of smooth muscles, cardiac muscles, organs, and glands are regulated by ______ system.
A | Parasympathetic |
B | Sympathetic |
C | Central nervous |
D | Autonomic |
Question 11 |
In the PNS, the neuroglial cells that form protective myelin sheaths are ______.
A | Microglia | |
B | Ganglionic cells | |
C | Oligodendrocytes | |
D | Schwann cells | |
Question 12 | ||
Molecules of neurotransmitter, released from the presynaptic neuron bind to receptors on the ______.
A | Postsynaptic membrane |
B | Cell body |
C | Axonal membrane |
D | None of these |
Question 13 |
Comprehension of spoken and written words take place in the region of
A | Association Area | |
B | Motor Area | |
C | Wernicke’s Area | |
D | Broca’s Area | |
Question 14 | ||
One of the followings is a naturally occurring compound which reduces the sensation of pain and generates feelings of well-being?
A | Acetylcholine |
B | Dopamine |
C | Endorphin |
D | Epinephrine |
Question 15 |
During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the action potential results from the movement of
A | Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid |
B | K+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid |
C | Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid |
D | K+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid |
Nervous system in humans: Neural Control and Coordination – MCQs Quiz – 2
Question 1 |
There are ______ pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain.
A | 8 | |
B | 12 | |
C | 18 | |
D | 25 | |
Question 2 |
Recording of the electrical activity associated with the heartbeat is called ______.
A | Oscilloscope |
B | Electrocardiogram |
C | Stethoscope |
D | Laparoscope |
Question 3 |
Preganglionic neurons lie within the ______.
A | Parasympathetic nervous system | |
B | Sympathetic nervous system | |
C | Peripheral nervous system | |
D | Central nervous system | |
Question 4 | ||
Skeletal muscles are controlled by ______.
A | Sympathetic nerves |
B | Parasympathetic nerves |
C | Somatic nerves |
D | Autonomic nerves |
Question 5 |
Spinal cord and brain are wrapped in protective membranes known as ______.
A | Axomembranes | |
B | Meninges | |
C | Nodes of Ranvier | |
D | Myelin sheath | |
Question 6 | ||
The basic cyclic pattern of inspiration and expiration are established by a respiratory center within the ______.
A | Cerebellum |
B | Medulla oblongata |
C | Cerebral cortex |
D | Thalamus |
Question 7 |
Which portion of the brain is responsible for various emotions such as pleasure, fear, and happiness?
A | Thalamus | |
B | Reticular formation | |
C | Hypothalamus | |
D | Limbic system | |
Question 8 | ||
The difference in charge between inside and outside environment (change in voltage) of the nerve cell membrane is measured by ______.
A | Oscilloscope |
B | Electrocardiogram |
C | Stethoscope |
D | Laparoscope |
Question 9 |
The difference in voltage between the inside and outside of a cell is called ______.
A | Spike potential | |
B | Action potential | |
C | Resting potential | |
D | Reaction potential | |
Question 10 | ||
The generation of excitation-contraction coupling involves all the following events except
A | Generation of end-plate potential |
B | Release of calcium from troponin |
C | Formation of cross-linkages between actin and myosin |
D | Hydrolysis of ATP to ADP |
Question 11 |
The protein carrier in the membrane, called “sodium-potassium pump” pumps ______
A | Both Na+ and K+ in | |
B | Both Na+ and K+ out | |
C | Na+ in and K+ out | |
D | Na+ out and K+ in | |
Question 12 | ||
The thin and convoluted outer layer of gray matter that covers the cerebral hemispheres is
A | Medulla oblongata |
B | Thalamus |
C | Cerebral cortex |
D | Meninges |
Question 13 |
When a neuron is in resting state i.e. not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is
A | Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions | |
B | Comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions and nearly impermeable to K+ ions | |
C | Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions | |
D | Impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions | |
Question 14 | ||
When sympathetic nervous system is activated it causes the secretion of
A | Adrenaline which inhibits the organ |
B | Acetylcholine which stimulates the organ |
C | Adrenaline which stimulates the organ |
D | Acetylcholine which inhibits the organ |
Question 15 |
Select the correct statement from the ones given below
A | Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery |
B | Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth |
C | Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain killer |
D | Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate |
Nervous system in humans: Neural Control and Coordination – MCQs Quiz – 3
Question 1 |
Which one of the followings is the largest portion of the brain in humans?
A | Cerebrum | |
B | Cerebellum | |
C | Medulla | |
D | Pons | |
Question 2 | ||
Which neuroglia cells produce a fatty insulating material called myelin?
A | Satellite cells |
B | Schwann cells |
C | Both (A) and (B) |
D | Neither (A) nor (B) |
Question 3 |
During synaptic transmission of nerve impulse, neurotransmitter (P) is released from synaptic vesicles by the action of ions (Q). Choose the correct P and Q.
A | P = Acetylcholine, Q = Ca++ | |
B | P = Acetylcholine, Q = Na+ | |
C | P = GABA, Q=Na+ | |
D | P = Cholinesterase, Q = Ca++ | |
Question 4 | ||
Which of the following does not act as a neurotransmitter?
A | Acetylcholine |
B | Glutamic acid |
C | Epinephrine |
D | Tyrosine |
Question 5 |
Which one of the followings is responsible for the improvement of nutrient flow to the neurons and provides electrical insulation?
A | Neuroglia | |
B | Motor neuron | |
C | Sensory neuron | |
D | Interneuron | |
Question 6 | ||
Which of the following is not related to the autonomic nervous system?
A | Peristalsis |
B | Digestion |
C | Excretion |
D | Memory and learning |
Question 7 |
Which of the following options is appropriate for the processing center “Wernicke’s area” found in left cerebral cortex?
A | Helps us to understand both written and spoken word | |
B | Adds grammatical refinements | |
C | Sends information to Broca’s area | |
D | Both (A) and (C) | |
Question 8 | ||
Which of the following nerves is the largest of all the cranial nerves?
A | Abducens nerve |
B | Oculomotor nerve |
C | Olfactory nerve |
D | Trigeminal nerve |
Question 9 |
Which one of the following cranial nerves is carrying the nerve fibres originating from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus?
A | Oculomotor | |
B | Trochlear | |
C | Abducens | |
D | Vagus | |
Question 10 | ||
Which one of the common neurotransmitters is paired wrongly with the site where it is released?
A | Somatostatin – pancreas |
B | Serotonin – spinal cord |
C | Acetylcholine – Neuromuscular junctions |
D | Endorphins – autonomic nervous system |
Question 11 |
Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?
A | Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary euphoria | |
B | Hashish causes after thought perceptions and hallucinations | |
C | Opium stimulates nervous system and causes hallucinations | |
D | Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed emotions | |
Question 12 | ||
Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched in regard to the principal actions of neurotransmitters?
A | Endorphins – involved in moods |
B | Serotonin – involved in sleep cycle |
C | Norepinephrine – plays a role in emotions |
D | Somatostatin – inhibits pancreatic release of growth hormone |
Question 13 |
Which one of the followings is correct in regard to the function of cerebellum?
A | Regulate heartbeat | |
B | Muscle coordination | |
C | Secretes melatonin | |
D | Sense reception | |
Question 14 | ||
Which one of the followings is not correct about neuroglial cells?
A | Generate or transmit impulses |
B | Maintain healthy concentrations of important chemicals in the fluid |
C | Provide physical support and protection to neurons |
D | In PNS, responsible for myelination (Schwann cells) |
Question 15 |
Which one of the following aspects is an exclusive characteristic of living things?
A | Perception of events happening in the environment and their memory |
B | Increase in mass by accumulation of material both on surface as well as internally |
C | Isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro |
D | Increase in mass from inside only |
Nervous system in humans: Neural Control and Coordination – MCQs Quiz – 4
Question 1 |
Given below is a diagrammatic cross section of a single loop of human cochlea: Which one of the following options correctly represents the names of three different parts?
A | A: Perilymph, B: Tectorial membrane C: Endolymph | |
B | B: Tectorial membrane, C: Perilymph, D: Secretory cells | |
C | C: Endolymph, D : Sensory hair cells, A: Serum | |
D | D: Sensory hair cells, A: Endolymph B: Tectorial membrane | |
Question 2 | ||
Examine the diagram of the two cell types A and B given below and select the correct option.
A | Cell-A is the rod cell found evenly all over retina |
B | Cell-A is the cone cell more concentrated in the fovea centralis |
C | Cell-B is concerned with colour vision in bright light |
D | Cell-A is sensitive to low light intensities |
Question 3 |
Which one of the following is the correct difference between Rod Cells and Cone Cells of our retina?
(1) | Distribution | More concentrated in centre of retina | Evenly distributed all over retina | ||
(2) | Visual acuity | High | Low | ||
(3) | Visual pigment contained | Iodopsin | Rhodopsin | ||
(4) | Overall function | Vision in poor light | Colour vision and detailed vision in bright light | ||
A | (1) | ||||
B | (2) | ||||
C | (3) | ||||
D | (4) | ||||
Question 4 | |||||
An action potential in the nerve fibre is produced when positive and negative charges on outside and the inside of the axon membrane are reversed because
A | all potassium ions leave the axon |
B | more potassium ions enter the axon as compared to sodium ions leaving it |
C | more sodium ions enter the axon as compared to potassium ions leaving it |
D | all sodium ions enter the axon |
Question 5 |
The cutaneous plexus and the papillary plexus consist of
A | Specialized cells for cutaneous sensations | |
B | A network of arteries to provide dermal supply | |
C | A network of nerves to provide dermal sensation | |
D | Gland cells that release cutaneous secretions | |
Question 6 | ||
Which one of the following pairs of structures distinguishes a nerve cell from other types of cell?
A | Perikaryon and dendrites |
B | Vacuoles and fibres |
C | Flagellum and medullary sheath |
D | Nucleus and mitochondria |
Question 7 |
Which one of the following is an example of negative feedback loop in humans?
A | Constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal muscles when it is too cold | |
B | Secretion of tears after falling of sand particles into the eyes | |
C | Salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious food | |
D | Secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is too hot | |
Question 8 | ||
During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?
A | First positive, then negative and continue to be negative |
B | First negative, then positive and again back to negative |
C | First positive, then negative and again back to positive |
D | First negative, then positive and continue to be positive. |
Question 9 |
Given below is a table comparing the effects of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system for four features (a-d). Which one feature is correctly described?
Feature | Sympathetic Nervous System | Parasympathetic Nervous System | ||
(a) Salivary gland | Stimulates secretion | Inhibits secretion | ||
(b) Pupil of the eye | Dilates | Constricts | ||
(c) Heart rate | Decreases | Increases | ||
(d) Intestinal peristalsis | Stimulates | Inhibits | ||
A | (a) | |||
B | (b) | |||
C | (c) | |||
D | (d) | |||
Question 10 | ||||
Patients suffering from cholera are given a saline drip because
A | NaCl is an important component of energy supply |
B | NaCl furnishes most of the fuel required for cellular activity |
C | Na+ ions help in stopping nerve impulses and hence, sensation of pain |
D | Na+ ions help in the retention of water in the body tissues |
Question 11 |
Unidirectional transmission of a nerve impulse through nerve fibre is due to the fact that:
A | nerve fibre is insulated by a medullary sheath | |
B | sodium pump starts operating only at the cyton and then continues into the nerve fibre | |
C | neurotransmitters are released by dendrites and not by axon endings | |
D | neurotransmitters are released by the axon endings and not by dendrites | |
Question 12 | ||
Assertion: The imbalance in concentration of Na+, K+ and proteins generates resting potential. Reason: To maintain the unequal distribution of Na+ and K+, the neurons use electrical energy.
A | Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. |
B | Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of Assertion. |
C | Assertion is true, but Reason is false. |
D | Both Assertion and Reason are false. |
Question 13 |
If vagus nerve in man is damaged, which of the following will not be affected?
A | pancreatic secretion | |
B | gastrointestinal movements | |
C | tongue movements | |
D | cardiac movements | |
Question 14 | ||
The function of vagus nerve innervating the heart is to
A | Initiate the heart beat |
B | Reduce the heart beat |
C | Accelerate the heart beat |
D | Maintain constant heart beat |
Question 15 |
Cornea transplant in humans is almost never rejected. This is because:
A | It is a non-living layer |
B | Its cells are least penetrable by bacteria |
C | It has no blood supply |
D | It is composed of enucleated cells |
Tags: Biology Class 11 Multiple Choice Questions, MCQs (Objective Questions) by TEACHING CARE online tuition and coaching classes