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Biology Class 11 Multiple Choice Questions, MCQs (Objective Questions) by TEACHING CARE online tuition and coaching classes

Biology Class 11 Multiple Choice Questions, MCQs (Objective Questions) by TEACHING CARE online tuition and coaching classes.

Animal (Animalia) Kingdom: MCQs Quiz – 1

Question 1

Who proposed artificial system of classification

A John Ray
B Lamarck
C Linnaeus
D Wallace
Question 2

Who formed the ‘key’ for identification of animals

A John Ray
B Theophrastus
C Goethe
D Georges Cuvier

 

Question 3

Which phylum has a true coelom?

A Cnidaria
B Mollusca
C Porifera
D Annelida
Question 4

Which organism possesses characteristics of plants and animals?

A Bacteria
B Monera
C Euglena
D Mycoplasma

 

Question 5

A fat called blubber could be obtained from

A Bats
B Porpoises
C Dolphin
D Blue whale
Question 6

Which one of the following phylum is characterized by absence of true coelom?

A Annelida
B Mollusca
C Echinodermata
D Nematoda

 

Question 7

Which one of the following pairs of animals comprises ‘jawless fishes’?

A Guppies and hag fishes
B Lampreys and eels
C Mackerels and Rohu
D Lampreys and hag fishes
Question 8

In a sponge the whole inner surface of the asconoid is lined by

A Choanocytes
B Porocytes
C Pinacocytes
D Amoebocytes

 

Question 9

Which one of the following kinds of animals is triploblastic?

A Corals
B Flat worms
C Sponges
D Ctenophores
Question 10

Which one of the following is not a member of the group Eutheria?

A Mole
B Squirrel
C Pangolin
D Platypus

 

Question 11

The ______ are undifferentiated embryonic cells and produce the sex cells as well.

A Thesocytes
B Myocytes
C Archaeocytes
D Chromocytes
Question 12

Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic?

A Sponges
B Coelenterates (Cnidarians)
C Aschelminthes (round worms)
D Ctenophores

 

Question 13

Why do camels have a long neck?

A more vertebrae
B vertebral plates between adjoining vertebrae
C increase in size of each vertebra
D cartilage pads between vertebra
Question 14

Which one of the following animals shows discontinuous distribution?

A Green muscles
B Bats
C Lung fishes
D Pacific salmons

 

Question 15

Which of the followings are egg laying mammals?

A Insectivores
B Monotremes
C Marsupials
D Bats

 

Animal (Animalia) Kingdom: MCQs Quiz – 2

Question 1

Which of the following types of fish is eaten usually by humans?

A Jawless
B Bony
C Cartilaginous
D all of the above
Question 2

Which of the following statements is true?

A Invertebrates posses a tubular nerve cord
B Non chordates have a vertebral column
C All chordates are vertebrates
D All vertebrates are chordates

 

Question 3

Which of the following statements is true about Roundworms?

A Roundworms may reach 5 cm in length.
B They are non-segmented
C They are generally dark-colored.
D They occur only in the soil.
Question 4

Which of the following statement is correct?

A Platypus lays eggs
B Camels have biconcave RBCs
C Whales respire by gills
D Bats do not fly

 

Question 5

Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic feature without even a single exception?

A Mammalia : give birth to young ones
B Reptilia : possess 3-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle
C Chordata : possess a mouth provided with an upper and a lower jaw
D Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous endoskeleton
Question 6

Which of the following reptiles has four chambered heart?

A Turtle
B Sphenodon
C King cobra
D Crocodile

 

Question 7

Which of the followings is a diploblastic, radially symmetrical animal?

A Hydra
B Earthworm
C Roundworm
D Liver fluke
Question 8

Which of the following is non poisonous snake?

A Krait
B Cobra
C Viper
D Python

 

Question 9

Which of the following animal is not a vertebrate?

A Oryctolagus
B Fish
C Sparrow
D Amphioxus
Question 10

Which kind of symmetry occurs in sea anemone?

A Bilateral
B Radial
C Asymmetry
D None of these

 

Question 11

In a sponge which of the followings are responsible for maintaining the current of water?

A Pinacocytes
B Porocytes
C Choanocytes
D Amoebocytes
Question 12

Which is not an insect?

A Spider
B Termite
C Mosquito
D Ant

 

Question 13

Which is non poisonous?

A Centipede
B Scorpion
C Spider
D Crab
Question 14

Which is limbless amphibian?

A Alytes
B Hyla
C Ichthyophis
D Phlebotomus

 

Question 15

Cold blooded animals are

A which have cold blood
B who feel cold a lot
C who can regulate their temperature
D who can not regulate their temperature

 

Animal (Animalia) Kingdom: MCQs Quiz – 3

Question 1

Which is a living fossil?

A Coelacanth
B Limulus
C Sphenodon
D All of these
Question 2

Which is a coelenterate?

A Sea Mouse
B Sea Urchin
C Sea Pen
D Sea cucumber

 

Question 3

Which animal of the followings belongs to class crustacea?

A Cockroach
B Cyclops
C Grasshopper
D Mosquito
Question 4

When tail is cylindrical and ventral scales do not extend the entire width of belly the snake is

A definitely poisonous
B can be poisonous or non poisonous
C non-poisonous
D deadly poisonous

 

Question 5

Collar cells are general characteristic of

A Sand worm
B Roundworms
C Coelenterata
D Sponges
Question 6

Common character of all vertebrates without exception is

A Body divided into head, trunk and tail
B Two pairs of limbs
C Exoskeleton
D Presence of skull

 

Question 7

What will you look for to identify the sex of the following?

A Male shark – Claspers borne on pelvic fins
B Female Ascaris – Sharply curved posterior end
C Male frog – A copulatory pad on the first digit of the hind limb
D Female cockroach – Anal cerci
Question 8

What is common between kiwi, penguin and ostrich?

A They are running birds.
B They are flightless birds.
C They are migratory birds.
D They have four toes.

 

Question 9

What color is the blood of crayfish?

A green
B blue
C red
D white
Question 10

Turtles are

A Arthropods
B Pisces
C Reptiles
D Molluscs

 

Question 11

A true coelom is lined on all sides by

A Ectoderm
B Mesoderm
C Endoderm
D Ectoderm and endoderm
Question 12

Which of the following possesses post anal tail?

A Spider
B Scorpion
C Cockroach
D Cobra

 

Question 13

A common feature of tracheae of Cockroach and mammal is that both have

A Ciliated inner lining
B Non-collapsible walls
C Paired nature
D Origin from head
Question 14

Polymorphism occurs in animals of the class

A Hydrozoa
B Anthozoa
C Scyphozoa
D Gastropoda

 

Question 15

The clam nervous system is composed of

A labial palps
B one pair of ganglia
C two pairs of ganglia
D three pairs of ganglia

 

Animal (Animalia) Kingdom: MCQs Quiz – 4

Question 1

Phylum that doesn’t have a true coelom is

A Platyhelminthes
B Annelida
C Echinoderms
D Arthropoda
Question 2

Who wrote the book ‘Systema Naturae’?

A Lamarck
B Darwin
C Wallace
D Linnaeus

 

Question 3

Which one of the following statements about certain given animals is correct?

A Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates
B Round worms (Aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates
C Mollusks are acoelomates
D Insects are pseudocoelomates
Question 4

The radially symmetrical cnidarians have a ______ body in two distinct layers

A sac-like
B bilateral
C flattened
D symmetrical

 

Question 5

The cells absent in gastrodermis of Hydra are

A Gland cells
B Stinging cells
C Nutritive cells
D Nerve cells
Question 6

All birds have

A omnivorous habit
B feathers and can fly
C nests to care the babies
D calcareous-shelled egg

 

Question 7

Tapeworm is

A Digenetic parasite
B Nematode
C Monogenetic parasite
D Annelid
Question 8

Tapeworm does not possess digestive system as it

A Doesn’t require food
B Obtain food through general surface
C Does not require solid food
D Lives in intestine

 

Question 9

Sponges are ______ filter feeders.

A occasional
B terrestrial
C active
D sessile
Question 10

Class bivalvia is characterized by

A absence of gills
B absence of head
C coiled shell
D presence of tentacles around mouth

 

Question 11

Silk thread is obtained from silk moth during

A Nymph state
B Larval state
C Pupal state
D Adult state
Question 12

Silk fibre contains which proteins?

A Mucin and serine
B Fibrin and serine
C Collagen and elastin
D Fibroin and sericine

 

Question 13

Reptilian feature of Archaeopteryx is

A U shaped furcula
B Presence of abdominal ribs
C Feathers with barbules
D Presence of a beak
Question 14

______ is not an example of a cnidarian?

A Coral
B Flatworm
C Jellyfish
D Hydra

 

Question 15

“Kala-azar” and “oriental sore” are spread by

A Sand fly
B Bed Bug
C Louse
D Fruit fly

 

Animal (Animalia) Kingdom: MCQs Quiz – 5

Question 1

In cephalopod, the brain is formed from the fusion of ______.

A Spinal cord
B Ganglia
C Eye tissue
D Trochophore
Question 2

Fluke infections are diseases of the _______ in humans.

A Blood
B Bile
C Digestive tract
D Lungs

 

Question 3

Radial symmetry is usually associated with

A lower grade of organization
B creeping mode of life
C aquatic life
D sedentary mode of life
Question 4

Male mosquitoes usually feed on

A Garbage
B Human blood
C Flower sap
D All of the above

 

Question 5

Ichthyophis is a

A Worm blooded
B Limbless reptile
C Mammal
D Limbless amphibian
Question 6

Pupa occurs in the life cycle of

A Blatta
B Mosquito
C Housefly
D Periplaneta

 

Question 7

Pneumatic bones are expected to be found in

A Flying fish
B Whale
C Tadpole of frog
D Pigeon
Question 8

Peripatus is a connecting link between

A Coelenterata and Porifera
B Ctenophora and Platyhelminthes
C Mollusca and Echinodermata
D Annelida and Arthropoda

 

Question 9

The osculum is an excretory structure in

A Star fish
B Hydra
C Silver fish
D Sponge
Question 10

Ornithorhynchus is a

A fossil bird
B flightless bird
C connecting link between reptiles and birds
D mammal

 

Question 11

In which one of the following the genus name, its two characters and its class/phylum are correctly matched?

  Genus name Two characters Class/Phylum
1 Aurelia (a) Cnidoblasts Coelenterata
    (b) Organ level of organization  
2 Ascaris (a) Body segmented Annelida
    (b) Males and females distinct  
3 Salamandra (a) A tympanum represents ear Amphibia
    (b) Fertilization is external  
4 Pteropus (a) Skin possesses hair Mammalia
    (b) Oviparous  
A 1  
B 2  
C 3  
D 4  
Question 12  

Bed Bugs contribute to the spread of

A Typhoid
B Yellow fever
C Typhus
D Trench fever

 

Question 13

Annelids are called ______ worms.

A Parasitic
B Segmented
C Flat-bodied
D Acoelomate
Question 14

Animals are motile because they have

A Metabolism
B Energy
C Both muscle fibers and nerve fibers
D Legs or wings

 

Question 15

Echolocation is usually associated with

A Rats
B Birds
C Bats
D Monkeys

 

Animal (Animalia) Kingdom: MCQs Quiz – 6

Question 1

Insect mouthparts are adapted for different functions in different species. Mouthparts of houseflies are used for

A Siphoning
B Piercing and sucking
C Sponging and lapping
D Biting and chewing
Question 2

Earthworms eliminate cellular wastes and excess water through excretory tubules called ______.

A Nephridia
B Flame cells
C Coelom
D Gizzard

 

Question 3

In many animals the rapid change from the immature organism to the adult (change from larva to adult in insects) means

A Cephalization
B Molting
C Metamorphosis
D Endothermy
Question 4

Sharks, skates, and rays are also called ______ fishes.

A Jawless
B Bony
C Cartilaginous
D Freshwater

 

Question 5

In planarians water enters the body by ______.

A osmosis
B contractile vacuoles
C flame cells
D active transport
Question 6

Animals, floating and drifting on the surface of water are ______.

A Benthos
B Pelagic
C Plankton
D Neritic

 

Question 7

A phenomenon when parasite parasitizes themselves is known as

A Hyperparasitism
B Parasitoids
C Monoxenous parasitism
D Polyxenous parasitism
Question 8

Air bladder is present in

A Chondrichthyes
B Star fishes
C Actinopterygii
D Flying fishes

 

Question 9

All flat worms differ from all round worms in having

A Triploblastic body
B Solid mesoderm
C Bilateral symmetry
D Metamorphosis in the life history
Question 10

The cross section of the body of an invertebrate is given below. Identify the animal which has this body plan.

A Round worn
B Planaria
C Earthworm
D Cockroach

 

Question 11

Which one of the following groups of three animals each is correctly matched with their one characteristic morphological feature?

  Animals Morphological feature
(1) Cockroach, Locust Taenia Metameric segmentation
(2) Liver fluke, Sea anemone, Sea cucumber Bilateral symmetry
(3) Centipede, Prawn, Sea urchin Jointed appendages
(4) Scorpion, Spider, Cockroach Ventral solid central nervous system
A Option (1)  
B Option (2)  
C Option (3)  
D Option (4)  
Question 12  

Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of phylum Annelida?

A Ventral nerve cord
B Closed circulatory system
C Segmentation
D Pseudocoelom

 

Question 13

Which one of the following is the true description about an animal concerned?

A Cockroach – 10 pairs of spiracles (2 pairs on thorax and 8 pairs on abdomen)
B Earthworm – The alimentary canal consists of a sequence of pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, gizzard and intestine
C Frog – Body divisible into three regions – head, neck and trunk
D Rat – Left kidney is slightly higher in position than the right one
Question 14

Phylum mollusca can be distinguished from other invertebrates by the presence of

A Bilateral symmetry and exoskeleton
B A mantle and gills
C Shell and non-segmented body
D A mantle and non-segmented body

 

Question 15

Consider the following four statements (a – d) about certain desert animals such as kangaroo rat.

(a) They have dark colour and high rate of reproduction and excrete solid urine

(b) They do not drink water, breathe at a slow rate to conserve water and have their body covered with thick hairs

(c) They feed on dry seeds and do not require drinking water

(d) They excrete very concentrated urine and do not use water to regulate body temperature.

Which two of the above statements for such animals are true?

A (a) and (b)
B (c) and (d)
C (b) and (c)
D (c) and (a)

 

Animal (Animalia) Kingdom: MCQs Quiz – 7

Question 1

Order Rhynchocephalia consists of

A Tuataras
B Lizards and snakes
C Turtles and tortoises
D Crocodiles, alligators, caimans
Question 2

Cnidarians having cells called cnidocytes, contain organelles known as ______.

A Polymorphism
B Nematocysts
C Hermaphroditism
D None of these

 

Question 3

The metamorphosis of insects appears to be regulated through

A Thyroxine
B Haemolymph
C Ecdysone
D All the above
Question 4

Which one of the following is oviparous?

A Elephant
B Flying fox
C Platypus
D Whale

 

Question 5

Cold-blooded animals fall into which category?

A Ectotherms
B Psychrotherms
C Endotherms
D Thermophiles
Question 6

Radula is found in

A Pila sp.
B Chiton sp.
C Lamellidens sp.
D Pinctada sp.

 

Question 7

Cysticercus stage is formed in

A Taenia
B Plasmodium
C Leishmania
D Wuchereria
Question 8

One example of animals having a single opening to the outside that serves both as mouth as well as anus is

A Fasciola
B Octopus
C Asterias
D Ascidia

 

Question 9

Ornithorhynchus is an example of :

A Dinosaur
B Monotreme mammal
C Marsupial mammal
D Eutherian mammal
Question 10

Phylogenetic classification is based on

A External similarity
B Common evolution
C Habit and habitat
D Utilitarian system

 

Question 11

Radial symmetry occurs in which set?

A Echinodermata and Coelenterata
B Porifera and Coelenterata
C Mollusca and Arthropoda
D Platyhelminthes and Coelenterata
Question 12

Taxonomically a species is

A A group of evolutionary related populations
B Population having same evolutionary basis
C Category to which most taxonomic information is attached
D Fundamental unit is phylogenetic history of organisms

 

Question 13

Column I contains larval stages and Column II contains the group to which it belongs. Match them correctly and choose the right answer from the options given below:

  Column – I   Column – II
A Planula p Annelida
B Tornaria q Mollusca
C Trochophore r Arthropoda
D Bipinnaria s Chordata
E Glochidium t Echinodermata
    u Coelenterata
A A = u, B = s, C = p, D = t, E = q
B A = q, B = t, C = p, D = s, E = u
C A = t, B = s, C = r, D = q, E = p
D A = s, B = r, C = q, D = p, E = t
Question 14  

Which one of the following statements is correct?

A Germ layers are tissue layers in the embryos of all animals except sponges.
B Germ layers include ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm.
C Flatworms have three germ layers whereas cnidarians and ctenophores have two.
D All of these are correct.

 

Question 15

The figure shows four animals (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the correct answer with respect to a common characteristic of two of these animals.

(a)   (b)   (c)   (d)  
A (a) and (d) have cnidoblasts for self-defence  
B (c) and (d) have a true coelom  
C (a) and (d) respire mainly through body wall  
D (b) and (c) show radial symmetry  

 

Animal (Animalia) Kingdom: MCQs Quiz – 8

Question 1

Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

A Viviparity is the reproductive pattern shown by most mammals
B Viviparity occurs primarily in salamanders and caecilians.
C In viviparity, a shell does not form around the egg.
D Viviparity is not found in species of lizards and snakes.
Question 2

Which one of the following statements is stated incorrectly regarding cartilaginous fishes?

A Cartilaginous fishes have sense organs.
B Most cartilaginous fishes have color vision.
C Teeth-like placoid scales are found on the skin of cartilaginous fishes.
D In cartilaginous fishes, gas exchange occurs in the gills.

 

Question 3

Which statement is correct regarding reptiles, birds, and mammals?

A Evolved from a common ancestor
B Embryos are surrounded by a fluid-filled sac called amnion
C Outer covering is largely watertight.
D All of the above
Question 4

Which one of the following characteristics is NOT a shared by birds and mammals?

A A backbone and internal skeleton
B Breathing using lungs
C Viviparity
D Warm blooded nature

 

Question 5

Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

A Radial symmetry is displayed by sea anemone and aquatic animal.
B Fasciola hepatica is also known as the sheep liver fluke.
C Triploblastic animals are usually bilaterally symmetrical
D Mesoglea is present in between ectoderm and endoderm in Obelia
Question 6

Which one of the followings belongs to platyhelminthes?

A Plasmodium
B Trypanosoma
C Schistosoma
D Wuchereria

 

Question 7

Radial symmetry is generally exhibited by which animals?

A Which are attached with substratum
B Which are aquatic
C Which have ciliary feeding
D Which have one opening of alimentary canal
Question 8

Tachyglossus is a connecting link between

A Reptiles and Birds
B Amphibians and Reptiles
C Birds and Mammals
D Reptiles and Mammals

 

Question 9

The scientific name of Asian tiger mosquito

A Aedes aegypti
B Aedes albopictus
C Aedes taeniorhynchus
D Aedes albolineatus
Question 10

Water-Vascular’ system is found in

A Sea-anemone
B Sea-pen
C Sea-cucumber
D Sea-horse

 

Question 11

Cell tissue grade of organization occurs in

A Platyhelminthes
B Sponges
C Protozoa
D Coelenterata
Question 12

Swarming generally occurs in

A Pyrilla
B Mosquito
C House fly
D Locust

 

Question 13

Animals having a built in thermostat to maintain constant body temperature are known as

A Biothermic
B Poikilothermic
C Oligothermic
D Homeothermic
Question 14

Which one of the followings in birds indicates their reptilian ancestry?

A Eggs with a calcareous shell
B Scales on their hind limbs
C Four-chambered heart
D Two special chambers crop and gizzard in their digestive tract

 

Question 15

______ are devoid of respiratory, excretory and circulatory organs.

A Threadworms
B Sponges
C Tapeworms
D Liver fluke

 

 

Animal Tissue – 01

Question 1

An example of merocrine gland is______.

A Sebaceous gland
B Pineal gland
C Salivary gland
D Mammary gland
Question 2

Antigens are present in______.

A Cell surface
B Cell cytoplasm
C Nuclear membrane
D Plasma

 

Question 3

ATPase enzyme needed for muscle contraction is located in______.

A Actinin
B Troponin
C Myosin
D Actin
Question 4

Basement membrane is derived from______.

A Ectoderm
B Endoderm
C Epidermis
D Epidermis and connectile tissue

 

Question 5

Blood cells that transport oxygen within the body are the ______.

A Plasma
B Erythrocytes
C Platelets
D Leukocytes
Question 6

Bone acts as a reservoir for which of the following elements?

A Nitrogen
B Carbon
C Calcium
D Hydrogen

 

Question 7

Bone marrow occurs in______.

A Ribs
B Ribs, sternum
C Ribs, cranium
D Ribs, sternum, cranium
Question 8

Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiation than normal cells because they are______.

A Starved of nutrition
B Different in structure
C Non dividing
D Undergo rapid division

 

Question 9

Cells lining the blood capillaries are called______.

A Oxyntic cells
B Endothelial cells
C Parietal cells
D Haemocytes
Question 10

Chemically an antibody is______.

A Nucleoprotein
B Lipid
C Carbohydrate
D Protein

 

Question 11

Connective tissue mainly contains______.

A Actin
B Reticulin
C Collagen
D Elastin
Question 12

Connective tissue originates from______.

A Endoderm
B Ectoderm
C Mesoderm
D Endo-mesoderm

 

Question 13

Contractile protein of muscle is______.

A Tubulin
B Myosin
C Actin
D Tropomycin
Question 14

Ends of long bones have______.

A Calcified cartilage
B Elastic cartilage
C Hyaline cartilage
D Fibrous cartilage

 

Question 15

Ends of two bones are connected by______.

A Muscles
B Tendons
C Ligaments
D Cartilage
Question 16

Which covers cartilage?

A Pericardium
B Perichondrium
C Perineurium
D Periosteum

 

Question 17

Which glands secrete hormones directly into the extracellular space?

A Endocrine glands
B Apocrine gland
C Merocrine gland
D None of the above
Question 18

Which is coiled tubular gland?

A Villi
B Sebaceous
C Sweat gland
D Testes

 

Question 19

Which is not correctly matched?

A Liver-Kupffer cells
B Pancreas-Glisson‘s capsule
C Kidney-nephrons
D Testis-seminiferous tubules
Question 20

Which of the following has slowest growth rate?

A Connective tissue
B Epithelial tissue
C Nervous tissue
D None of these

 

Animal Tissue – 02

Question 1

Epithelial tissues arise from______.

A Ectoderm
B Endoderm
C Mesoderm
D All the above
Question 2

Erythrocytes of adult rabbit and other mammals are formed in______.

A Kidney
B Liver
C Spleen
D Bone marrow

 

Question 3

Fibrous tissue which connects bones is______.

A Connective tissue
B Tendon
C Adipose tissue
D Ligament
Question 4

Four healthy people in their twenties got involved in injuries resulting in damage and death of a few cells Of the following, which cells are least likely to be replaced by new cells?

A Osteocytes
B Liver cells
C Neurons
D Malpighian layer of the skin

 

Question 5

From which embryonic layer develops the kidney______.

A Meso-endoderm
B Mesoderm
C Endoderm
D Ectoderm
Question 6

Functional unit of Kidney is______.

A Glomerulus
B Henley’s loop
C Nephorn
D Pelvis

 

Question 7

Glands are composed of which of these tissue types?

A Epithelium
B Connective
C Muscle
D Nervous
Question 8

Ground substance of connective tissue is mainly made up of______.

A Monosaccharides
B Phospholipids
C Lipids
D Mucopolysaccharides

 

Question 9

Haversian canals are found in______.

A Ascon type simple sponge
B Long bone of rat
C Internal ear of mammals
D Spinal cord of vertebrates
Question 10

Haversian systems are found in the bones of______.

A Panther
B Pigeon
C Python
D Pipe fish

 

Question 11

In frog stratum corneum of skin contains______.

A Living, nucleated, columnar cells
B Living, non nucleated. flattered cells
C Dry, non nucleated. flattened cells containing keratin
D Non living, nucleated, columnar cells
Question 12

Intrcalated discs are found in______.

A Between neurons
B In cardiac muscles
C At the junction of muscles and nerves
D In striped muscles

 

Question 13

Large number of mitochondria are found in______.

A Thigh muscle
B Cardiac muscle
C Breast bone of bird
D All of the above
Question 14

Larynx and trachea contain______.

A Hyaline cartilage
B Xiphoid cartilage
C Solid bone
D Cartilage bone

 

Question 15

Longest smooth muscles are found in______.

A Legs of athletes
B Abdomen
C Uterus of pregnant women
D Back muscles
Question 16

Which of the following is NOT a function of epithelial tissue?

A Covers surfaces
B Secretion and absorption.
C Support of the body
D Lining of the digestive tract

 

Question 17

Which of the following substance, if introduced into the blood stream would cause coagulation of blood at the site of its introduction?

A Thromoboplastin
B Fibrinogen
C Heparin
D Prothrombin
Question 18

Which one of the following contains the largest quantity of extracellular material?

A Striated muscle
B Areolar tissue
C Stratified epithelium
D Myelinated nerve fibres

 

Question 19

Which protein occurs in the matrix of cartilage?

A Ossein
B Casein
C Chondrin
D Actin
Question 20

Without which corpuscles blood clotting is not possible______.

A Erythrocytes
B Thrombocytes
C Plasmocytes
D Leucocytes

Animal Tissue – 03

Question 1

Mammary gland is a modified______.

A Endocrine gland
B Ecrine gland
C Merocrine gland
D Apocrine gland
Question 2

Mast cells occur in______.

A Nervous tissue
B Connective tissue
C Epithelial tissue
D Skeletal tissue

 

Question 3

Mast cells of connective tissue contain______.

A Vasopressin and relaxin
B Heparin and histamine
C Heparin and calcitonin
D Serotonin and melanin
Question 4

Myoglobin is found in______.

A White fibre
B Red fibre
C Yellow fibre
D All of them

 

Question 5

Myoglobin occurs in______.

A Liver
B Blood
C Muscles
D Spleen
Question 6

The junction of two neurons is called

A Synapse
B Relay
C Synapsis
D Conduction zone

 

Question 7

New blood cells are formed in ______.

A Adipose cells
B Bone marrow
C Liver
D Matrix
Question 8

Notochord develops from embyronic layer______.

A Ectoderm
B Mesoderm
C Endodem
D Both (A) and (B)

 

Question 9

Oesophagus, stomach and intestine are lined with______.

A Transitional epithelium
B Striated columnar epithelium
C Simple columnar epithelium
D Simple squamous epithelium
Question 10

Processes of osteoblasts are called______.

A Dendrite
B Lamella
C Canaliculae
D Haversian canal

 

Question 11

Pseudo-stratified epithelium is present in

A Kidney
B Urinary bladder
C Larynx
D Trachea
Question 12

RBC was kept in a solution, in few minutes it got burst, the solution was______.

A Hypertonic
B Isotonic
C Hypotonic
D Cane sugar solution

 

Question 13

Red pulp and white pulp are histological structure found in______.

A Tooth
B Spleen
C Bone
D Skeletal muscle
Question 14

Transitional epithelium is found in

A Urinary bladder
B Larynx
C Trachea
D Kidney

 

Question 15

Sarcolemma is a membrane found over______.

A Nerve libre
B Cardiac muscle
C Muscle libre
D Heart
Question 16

Sarcomere is the distance between______.

A Z line and A band
B Two Z lines
C I band and H zone
D A and I bands

 

Question 17

Schwann cell is found around______.

A Axon
B Cyton
C Dendrite
D Dendron
Question 18

Secretion of sebaceous gland is______.

A Holocrine
B Apocrine
C Ecrine
D Merocrine

 

Question 19

The structural and functional unit of the striated muscle fibre is called

A Z-band
B Myofibril
C Sarcoplasm
D Sarcomere
Question 20

The efferent process of neuron is called:

A Dendrite
B Axon
C Cyton
D Dendron

Animal Tissue – 04

Question 1

Skeletal muscles are______.

A Endodermal in origin
B Ectodermal in origin
C Mesodermal in origin
D All of them
Question 2

Smooth muscles are______.

A Involuntary, spindle shaped, uninucleated, tapering
B Voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical
C Involuntary, cylindrical, multinucleate
D Voluntary, branched, uninucleate

 

Question 3

Stratum germinativum is derived from______.

A Flat cells
B Ciliated cells
C Columnar cells
D Cuboidal cells
Question 4

The longitudinal channels of bone are called:

A Bone marrow
B Haversian canals
C Marrow cavity
D Lacunae

 

Question 5

Striated muscles occur in______.

A Urinary bladder
B Alimentary canal
C Skeletal muscles
D None of these
Question 6

The cells primarily involved in immune mechanism are______.

A Eosinophils
B Thrombocytes
C Lymphocytes
D Erythrocytes

 

Question 7

The white fibres are chemically formed of

A Actin
B Collagen
C Myosin
D Elastin
Question 8

The cells that line the tubules of the kidneys are ______.

A Flat
B Ciliated
C Columnar
D Cuboidal

 

Question 9

The functional unit of contractive system in striated muscle is______.

A Cross bridges
B Myofibril
C Sarcomere
D Z-band
Question 10

The junction of an axon and dendrite is called______.

A Relay
B Synapse
C Conduction zone
D Cyton

 

Question 11

The plasma without fibrinogen and other clotting factors is called:

A Blood
B Serum
C Anti-serum
D Lymph
Question 12

The most appropriate definition for neuroglial cells is that they are______.

A Nonsensory supporting cells
B Secretory cells
C Sensory cells
D Sensory and supporting cells

 

Question 13

The muscles in the eye associated with pupil are______.

A Unstriated and involuntary
B Striated and voluntary
C Striated and involuntary
D Unstriated and voluntary
Question 14

The receptors found in the muscles, tendons and joints are______.

A Teloreceptiors
B Proprioceptors
C Interoceptors
D Thermoreceptors

 

Question 15

Which one of the following is largest in size

A Monocyte
B Basophil
C Lymphocyte
D Neutrophil
Question 16

This is not the cell of areolar tissue______.

A Macrophage
B Schwann cell
C Plasma cell
D Adipose cell

 

Question 17

This one is the characteristic of epithelial tissues.

A These cells never produce glands
B These cells have a rapid rate of cell division
C These tissues are highly vascularised
D Large intercellular spaces are seen between the cells.
Question 18

Transitional epithelium occurs in______.

A Kidney
B Vein
C Renal pelvis and ureter
D Larynx

 

Question 19

The basic contractile unit of muscle is ______.

A Sarcomere
B Myofibril
C Z-band
D H-band
Question 20

Nissl’s granules are found in ______ cells.

A Nerve
B Cartilage
C Muscle
D Bone

Cells: The basic unit of life – MCQ Quiz – 1

Question 1

Cell was discovered by

A Leeuwenhoek
B Robert Hooke
C Robert Swanson
D Robert Brown
Question 2

The spherical structured organelle that contains the genetic material is

A Cell walls
B Ribosomes
C Nucleus
D Mitochondria

 

Question 3

Protoplasm found inside the nucleus is known as

A Amyloplast
B Nucleoplasm
C cytoplasm
D Elaioplast
Question 4

Which of the following statements are true about Endoplasmic Reticulum? (a) Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum makes lipids. (b) It is also called the control center of the cell. (c) It processes carbohydrates. (d) It modifies chemicals that are toxic to the cell.

A (a), (b) and (c)
B (a), (c) and (d)
C only (a) and (d)
D all are correct

 

Question 5

Prokaryotic genetic system has

A DNA but no histones
B Both DNA and histones
C Neither DNA nor histones
D Either DNA or histones
Question 6

Which of the following statements are true about Eukaryotes? (a) They are cells with a nucleus. (b) They are found both in humans and multicellular organisms. (c) Endoplasmic reticulum is present in Eukaryotes. (d) They have chemically complexed cell wall.

A (a), (b) and (c)
B (a), (c) and (d)
C (a), (b) and (d)
D all are correct

 

Question 7

A genophore (nucleoid) consists of

A Histone and RNA
B A single double stranded DNA
C A single stranded DNA
D Histone and non-histone
Question 8

Which one of the following organelles digests the old organelles that are no longer useful to the cells?

A Ribosomes
B Mitochondria
C Lysosomes
D Chromatin

 

Question 9

Plasmodesmata are located in narrow areas of _______.

A Cell walls
B Protoplasm
C Cellulose
D Nuclei
Question 10

Cell sap is a

A Living content of the cell
B Non living content of the vacuole
C Non-living content of the protoplasm
D Living content of the cytoplasm

 

Question 11

What do prokaryotic cells lack?

A Cell membrane
B Cytoplasm
C Cell wall
D membrane-bound nucleus
Question 12

Which of the following is an example of cell devoid of nuclear membrane and mitochondria is

A Bacterial cell
B Sperm
C Protist
D Sponge cell

 

Question 13

Lampbrush chromosomes are seen in

A Prophase
B Mitotic metaphase
C Mitosis
D Meiotic prophase
Question 14

Which one of the following is not considered as a part of the endomembrane system?

A Vacuole
B Lysosome
C Golgi complex
D Peroxisome

 

Question 15

Animal cell differs from plant cells in possessing

A Plastid
B Golgi body
C Vacuole
D Centrosome

Cells: The basic unit of life – MCQ Quiz – 2

Question 1

Carbohydrates present in the plasmalemma are in the form of

A cellulose
B hemicellulose
C starch
D glycolipids and glycoproteins
Question 2

Cell organelles are embedded in

A Nucleolus
B Cytoplasm
C Protoplasm
D Mitochondria

 

Question 3

Cellular totipotency means

A Synthesis of new cells
B Formation of new plants
C Formation of new species
D Capability of a plant cell to form complete plant
Question 4

Compare the statements A and B. Statement A : Sclerenchyma cells do not have plasmodesmata. Statement B : The cell walls of some permanent tissues are heavily lignified. Select the correct description :

A Both the statements A and B are wrong.
B Statement A is correct and B is wrong.
C Statement A is wrong and B is correct.
D Both the statements A and B are correct.

 

Question 5

Distinction of prokaryotes and eukaryotes is based on

A Proteins
B Nucleus
C Plasma membrane
D DNA
Question 6

Important site for formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids is

A Lysosome
B Vacuole
C Golgi apparatus
D Plastid

 

Question 7

In a Golgi complex the structure which is the functional unit is

A Cisternae
B Thylakoid
C Archoplasm
D Cristae
Question 8

In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles eukaryotic cell is

A Cell wall
B Plasma membrane
C Nucleus
D Ribosomes

 

Question 9

Intact chloroplast from green leaves can be isolated by:

A Acetone
B Ethanol
C Sucrose solution
D Alcohol
Question 10

Which of the following is considered an exception to cell theory?

A Protists
B Mycoplasma
C Virus
D Algae

 

Question 11

Intracellular compartments do not occur in

A Prokaryotes
B Lower plants
C Eukaryotes
D Higher plants
Question 12

Longest cells in human body are

A Leg muscle cells
B Bone cells
C Nerve cells
D Heart muscle cells

 

Question 13

Membrane-bound organelles are absent in

A Plasmodium
B Saccharomyces
C Streptococcus
D Chlamydomonas
Question 14

Mitochondria do not occur in

A Bacteria
B Green Algae
C Brown algae
D Red Algae

 

Question 15

The size of molecules, which can pass through the plasma membrane is

A 4 – 15 Å
B 25 – 80 Å
C 8 – 10 Å
D 10 – 35 Å

Cells: The basic unit of life – MCQ Quiz – 3

Question 1

Nuclear matter without envelope occurs in

A Bacteria and Green Algae
B Bacteria and Cyanobacteria
C Cyanobacteria and Red Algae
D Mycoplasma and Green Algae
Question 2

The Golgi apparatus

A Is found only in animals
B Is found in prokaryotes
C Is a site of rapid ATP production
D Modifies and packages proteins

 

Question 3

Prokaryote is characterized by

A Dispersed DNA and lack of membrane bound organelles
B Absence of nuclear envelope
C Absence of nucleolus
D All of these
Question 4

Plasmodesmata transports gibberellic acid in

A Protists
B Mycoplasma
C Virus
D Algae

 

Question 5

Smaller cell is

A less active metabolically
B with larger nucleus
C with smaller nucleus
D more active metabolically
Question 6

The cytoplasmic connections from cell to cell are known as

A middle lamella
B plasmodesmata
C cell membrane system
D endoplasmic reticulum

 

Question 7

The main arena of various types of activities of a cell is

A Nucleus
B Plasma membrane
C Mitochondria
D Cytoplasm
Question 8

The main difference between plant and animal cells is

A Plant cells has small vacuoles
B Animal cell lacks rigid cell wall
C Animal cells has large vacuoles
D Plant cell lacks rigid cell wall

 

Question 9

The plasma membrane consists mainly of

A Proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer
B Phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer
C Proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer
D Proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose molecules
Question 10

The suffix ‘S’ in ribosome unit indicates

A Solubility
B Sedimentation coefficient
C Surface Area
D Size

 

Question 11

Tonoplast, also called vacuolar membrane is a differentially permeable membrane surrounds the ______.

A cytoplasm
B vacuole
C nucleus
D mitochondria
Question 12

Tonoplast is a differentially permeable membrane surrounding the _____.

A Vacuole
B Cytoplasm
C Mitochondria
D Nucleus

 

Question 13

What is a genophore?

A DNA in prokaryotes
B DNA and RNA in prokaryotes
C DNA and protein in prokaryotes
D RNA in prokaryotes
Question 14

When a ripe tomato is pricked with a needle a watery fluid comes out. This fluid is stored in

A Vacuole
B Plastid
C Cytoplasm
D Nucleus

 

Question 15

Which one of the following structures between two adjacent cells is an effective transport pathway?

A Plasmalemma
B Plasmodesmata
C Plastoquinones
D Endoplasmic reticulum

Cells: The basic unit of life – MCQ Quiz – 4

Question 1

Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?

A Phospholipids
B Cholesterol
C Glycolipids
D Proline
Question 2

Purines possess nitrogen at

A 1, 2, 4 and 6 position
B 1, 3, 5 and 7 position
C 1, 3, 7 and 9 position
D 1, 2, 6 and 8 position

 

Question 3

The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are:

A Semiconservative
B Parallel
C Discontinuous
D Antiparallel
Question 4

Phagocytosis and pinocytosis are collectively termed as

A Endocytosis
B Suspension feeding
C Omnivores
D Mucous trap

 

Question 5

Vital stains are employed to study

A Living cells
B Frozen tissues
C Fresh tissues
D Preserved tissues
Question 6

Which one of the following also acts as a catalyst in a bacterial cell?

A 23 sr RNA
B 5 sr RNA
C sn RNA
D hn RNA

 

Question 7

Fluid mosaic model was given by

A Robertson
B Schwann
C Dave Donson
D Singer and Nicholson
Question 8

Middle lamella is composed mainly of

A Protein
B Hemicellulose
C Carbohydrate
D Calcium pectate

 

Question 9

Plasma membrane is made up of

A Protein, lipid, carbohydrate
B Lipid, carbohydrate
C Protein, lipid
D Protein
Question 10

Which one of the following organisms is not an example of eukaryotic cells

A Amoeba proteus
B Paramecium caudatum
C Escherichia coli
D Euglena viridis

 

Question 11

Plasmodesmata are

A Connections between adjacent cells
B Lignified cemented layers between cells
C Locomotary structures
D Membranes connecting the nucleus with plasmalemma
Question 12

Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly matched with the category mentioned against it?

A Adenine, Thymine – Purines
B Thymine, Uracil – Pyrimidines
C Uracil, Cytosine – Pyrimidines
D Guanine, Adenine – Purines

 

Question 13

Keeping in view the ‘fluid mosaic model’ for the structure of cell membrane, which one of the following statements is correct with respect to the movement of lipids and proteins from one lipid monolayer to the other (described as flip-flop movement)?

A Neither lipids, nor proteins can flip-flop
B Both lipids and proteins can flip-flop
C While lipids can rarely flip-flop, proteins can not
D While proteins can flip-flop, lipids can not
Question 14

The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells. How is this DNA accommodated?

A Through elimination of repetitive DNA
B Deletion of non-essential genes
C Super-coiling in nucleosomes
D DNAse digestion

 

Question 15

Comparing small and large cells, which statement is correct?

A Small cells have a small surface area per volume ratio
B Exchange rate of nutrients is fast with large cells
C Small cells have a large surface area per volume ratio
D Exchange rate of nutrients is slow with small cells

Cells: The basic unit of life – MCQ Quiz – 5

Question 1

Which one of the following does not differ in E.coli and Chlamydomonas?

A Cell wall
B Cell membrane
C Ribosomes
D Chromosomal organization
Question 2

Select the correct statement from the following regarding cell membrane

A Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar heads towards the inner part.
B Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was proposed by Singer and Nicolson.
C Na+ and K+ ions move across cell membrane by passive transport.
D Proteins make up 60 to 70% of the cell membrane

 

Question 3

What is true about ribosomes?

A These are found only in eukaryotic cells
B These are self-splicing introns of some RNAs.
C The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80S, where “S” stands for sedimentation coefficient
D These are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins.
Question 4

Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in :

A Nucleoplasm
B Ribosomes
C Lysosomes
D Nucleolus

 

Question 5
  1. Coli about to replicate was placed in a medium containing radio active thymidine for five minutes. Then it was made to replicate in a normal medium. Which of the following observation shall be correct?
A Both the strands of DNA will be radio active
B One strand radio active
C Each strand half radio active
D None is radio active
Question 6

Assertion: A cell membrane shows fluid behaviour.

Reason: A membrane is a mosaic or composite of diverse lipids and proteins.

A Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
B Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
C Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
D Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

 

Question 7

A nucleosome is a portion of the chromonema containing ______.

A both DNA and histones
B only histones
C both DNA and RNA
D only DNA
Question 8

If a cell has twice as much DNA as in a normal functional cell, it means that the cell ______.

A has completed division
B is preparing to divide
C has ceased to function
D has reached the end of its lifespan

 

Question 9

What is the common point of similarity between DNA and RNA?

A Both are double stranded
B Both have identical sugar molecules
C Both have identical pyrimidine bases
D Both are polymers of nucleotides
Question 10

Cell wall consists of

A Lignin, hemi cellulose, pectin and lipid
B Lignin, hemi cellulose, pectin and cellulose
C Lignin hemi cellulose, protein and lipid
D Hemi cellulose, cellulose, tubulin and lignin

 

Question 11

Cytoskeleton is made up of

A Proteinaceous filaments
B Calcium carbonate granules
C Callose deposits
D Cellulosic microfibrils
Question 12

Vacuole in a plant cell :

A Lacks membrane and contains water and excretory substances
B Is membrane-bound and contains storage proteins and lipids
C Is membrane-bound and contains water and excretory substances
D Lacks membrane and contains air

 

Question 13

Polysome is formed by

A Ribosomes attached to each other in a linear arrangement
B Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
C Many ribosomes attached to a strand of endoplasmic reticulum
D A ribosome with several subunits
Question 14

The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) in the cells are because of the presence of

A Mitochondria associated with ER
B Ribosomes on the surface of ER
C Volutin granules on the surface of ER
D Sulphur granules on the surface of ER

 

Question 15

Assertion:  Eukaryotic cells have the ability to adopt a variety of shapes and carry out directed movements.

Reason:  There are three principal types of protein filaments-actin filament, microtubules and intermediate filaments, which constitute the cytoskeleton.

A Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
B Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
C Assertion is true statement but reason is false.
D Both assertion and reason are false.

 

Cell Division | Cell cycle: Quiz – 1

Question 1

Which stages of cell division do the following figures A and B represent respectively?

  Fig. A Fig. B
(1) Prophase Anaphase
(2) Metaphase Telophase
(3) Telophase Metaphase
(4) Late Anaphase Prophase
A 1  
B 2  
C 3  
D 4  
Question 2  

During oogenesis the cell that is fertilized by a sperm to become an egg is

A primary spermatocyte
B secondary oocyte
C primary oocyte
D secondary spermatocyte

 

Question 3

A bivalent consists of

A Two chromatids and one centromere
B Four chromatids and two centromeres
C Two chromatids and two centromeres
D Four chromatids and four centromeres
Question 4

A change in the amount of yolk and its distribution in the egg will affect:

A Fertilization
B Formation of zygote
C Pattern of cleavage
D Number of blastomeres produced

 

Question 5

Chromosomes can be counted best at the stage of

A Metaphase
B Late anaphase
C Telophase
D Late prophase
Question 6

The stage in which daughter chromosomes move toward the poles of the spindle is

A Anaphase
B Metaphase
C Prophase
D Telophase

 

Question 7

Chiasmata are first seen in

A Pachytene
B Zygotene
C Leptotene
D Diplotene
Question 8

Protein subunit found within microtubules is

A Collagen
B Tubulin
C Myosin
D DNA

 

Question 9

Balbiani rings occur in

A Autosome
B Heterosome
C Lampbrush chromosome
D Polytene chromosome
Question 10

Cell plate grows from

A One wall to another
B Centre to wall
C Wall to centre
D Simultaneously

 

Question 11

Which of the following cellular structures always disappears during mitosis and meiosis?

A Plasma membrane
B Nucleolus and nuclear envelope
C Plastids
D none of these
Question 12

Centromere is a constituent of

A Ribosome
B ER
C Chromosome
D Mitochondrion

 

Question 13

Chiasma formation occurs in

A Pachytene
B Zygotene
C Leptotene
D Diplotene
Question 14

Crossing-over results in

A Recombination of linked alleles
B Dominance of alleles
C Segregation of alleles
D Linkage between genes

 

Question 15

Cytoplasmic division of a cell is called

A Cell plate formation
B Cytokinesis
C Mitosis
D Synapsis

Cell Division | Cell cycle: Quiz – 2

Question 1

Given below is a schematic break-up of the phases/stages of cell cycle Which one of the following is the correct indication of the stage/phase in the cell cycle?

A A-Cytokinesis
B B-Metaphase
C C-Karyokinesis
D D-Synthetic phase
Question 2

DNA replication takes place during

A S – phase
B G2 – phase
C G1 – phase
D Prophase

 

Question 3

During meiosis I, the number of chromosomes is

A Halved
B Tripled
C Doubled
D Quadrupled
Question 4

During mitosis ER and nucleolus begin to disappear at

A Early prophase
B Late prophase
C Early metaphase
D Late metaphase

 

Question 5

Crossing over occurs in

A Pachytene
B Zygotene
C Leptotene
D Diplotene
Question 6

During which stage the chromosomes first become visible.

A Anaphase
B Metaphase
C Prophase
D Telophase

 

Question 7

Exchange of paternal and maternal chromosome material during cell division is

A Crossing over
B Bivalent formation
C Dyad formation
D Synapsis
Question 8

Haploid complement of chromosome of an organism is

A Genome
B Phenotype
C Genotype
D Genetic system

 

Question 9

During gamete formation, the enzyme recombinase participates during

A Prophase-I
B Prophase-II
C Metaphase-I
D Anaphase-II
Question 10

In Human secondary spermatocyte how many chromosomes are present?

A 45
B 23
C 30
D 15

 

Question 11

Lampbrush chromosomes are observed in

A Mitotic prophase
B Mitotic metaphase
C Meiotic metaphase
D Meiotic prophase
Question 12

In humans, at the end of the first meiotic division, the male germ cells differentiate into the:

A Spermatogonia
B Primary spermatocytes
C Secondary spermatocytes
D Spermatids

 

Question 13

In mitosis, nuclear envelope and nucleolus disappear during

A Metaphase
B Interphase
C Prophase
D Telophase
Question 14

Meiosis is best seen in

A Gamete
B Pollen grain
C Microsporangium
D Anther wall

 

Question 15

Meiosis occurs for the human female in ______.

A Pancreas
B Liver
C Ovary
D Kidney

 

Biomolecules: MCQs Quiz – 01

Question 1

The curve given below show enzymatic activity with relation to three conditions (pH, temperature and substrate concentration). What do both axes (x and y) represent?

  x-axis y-axis
(1) Enzymatic activity Temperature
(2) Enzymatic activity pH
(3) Temperature Enzyme Activity
(4) Substrate concentration Enzymatic Activity
A Option (1)  
B Option (2)  
C Option (3)  
D Option (4)  
Question 2  

Which one of the following structural formulae of two organic compounds is correctly identified along with its related function?

A A : Lecithin – a component of cell membrane
B B : Adenine – a nucleotide that makes up nucleic acids
C A : Triglyceride – major source of energy
D B : Uracil – a component of DNA

 

Question 3

The ‘‘lock and key’’ model of enzyme action illustrates that a particular enzyme molecule

A May be destroyed and resynthesised several times
B Interacts with a specific type of substrate molecule
C Reacts at identical rates under all conditions
D Forms a permanent enzyme-substrate complex
Question 4

One strand of DNA has the following sequence of nucleotide 3’ ATTCGCTAT 5’ so the other strand of DNA has

A 5’ TAAGCGATA 3’
B 3’ TAAGCGATA 5’
C 5’ GACGCGATA 3’
D 3’ GACGCGATA 5’.

 

Question 5

With reference to enzymes, which one of the following statements is true?

A Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
B Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
C Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
D Holoenzyme = Coenzyme – Apoenzyme
Question 6

Feedback inhibition of enzymes is affected by which of the following

A enzyme
B substrate
C end products
D intermediate end products

 

Question 7

Example of a typical homopolysaccharide is

A Lignin
B Suberin
C Inulin
D Starch
Question 8

Which of the following is not a conjugated protein?

A Peptone
B Phosphoprotein
C Lipoprotein
D Chromoprotein

 

Question 9

Chitin is a

A Polysaccharide
B Nitrogenous polysaccharide
C Lipoprotein
D Protein
Question 10

Which one is diaminodicarboxylic amino acid?

A Cystine
B Lysine
C Cysteine
D Aspartic Acid

 

Question 11

The effectiveness of an enzyme is affected least by

A Temperature
B Concentration of the substrate
C Original activation energy of the system
D Concentration of the enzyme
Question 12

Which is an organic compound found in most cells?

A Glucose
B Water
C Sodium chloride
D Oxygen

 

Question 13

Enzymes that catalyse inter-conversion of optical, geometrical or positional isomers are

A Ligases
B Lyases
C Hydrolases
D Isomerases
Question 14

Fluidity of bio-membranes can be shown by

A Electron microscope
B Tissue culture
C Phase-contrast microscope
D Fluorescence microscope

 

Question 15

The “Repeating Unit” of glycogen is

A Fructose
B Mannose
C Glucose
D Galactose

Biomolecules: MCQs Quiz – 02

4

4

4

4

4

4

4

4

4

Biomolecules Questions: Online Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) on Biomolecules – The Chemistry of Life, with answers and Test Reporting. Test No. 2

Biomolecules: MCQs Quiz – 02

Question 1

Given below is the diagrammatic representation of one of the categories of small molecular weight organic compounds in the living tissues. Identify the category shown and the one blank component “X’ in it

  Category Component
(1) Nucleotide Adenine
(2) Nucleoside Uracil
(3) Cholesterol Guanin
(4) Amino acid NH2
A Option (1)  
B Option (2)  
C Option (3)  
D Option (4)  
Question 2  

Which one of the following is wrong statement?

A Phosphorus is a constituent of cell membranes, certain nucleic acids and all proteins
B Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are chemoautotrophs
C Anabaena and Nostoc are capable of fixing nitrogen in free-living state also
D Root nodule forming nitrogen fixers live as aerobes under free-living conditions

 

Question 3

Which one is the most abundant protein in the animal world?

A Collagen
B Insulin
C Trypsin
D Haemoglobin
Question 4

The catalytic efficiency of two different enzymes can be compared by the

A Molecular size of the enzyme
B The pH optimum value
C The Km value
D Formation of the product

 

Question 5

Which one of the following amino-acids was not found to be synthesized in Miller’s experiment?

A Glutamic acid
B Aspartic acid
C Glycine
D Alanine
Question 6

Example of a typical homopolysaccharide is

A Inulin
B Suberin
C Lignin
D Starch

 

Question 7

Which of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct?

A Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to an inhibitor protein
B Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the enzyme irreversibly
C Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme
D Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding large amount of substrate
Question 8

Enzymes, vitamins and hormones can be classified into a single category of biological chemicals, because all of these

A Are exclusively synthesized in the body of a living organism as at present
B enhance oxidative metabolism
C Are conjugated proteins
D Help in regulating metabolism

 

Question 9

Carbohydrates, the most abundant biomolecules on earth, are produced by

A Fungi, algae and green plants cells
B All bacteria, fungi and algae
C Some bacteria, algae and green plant cells
D Viruses, fungi and bacteria
Question 10

The given graph shows the effect of substrate concentration on the rate of reaction of the enzyme green gram-phosphatase. What does the graph indicate?

A The rate of enzyme reaction is directly proportional to the substrate concentration
B Presence of an enzyme inhibitor in the reaction mixture
C Formation of an enzyme-substrate complex
D At higher substrate concentration the pH increases

 

Question 11

The figure given below shows three velocity-substrate concentration curves for an enzyme reaction. What do the curves a, b and c depict respectively?

A a-normal enzyme reaction, b-competitive inhibition, c-non-competitive inhibition
B a-enzyme with an allosteric modulator added, b-normal enzyme activity, c-competitive inhibition
C a-enzyme with an allosteric stimulator, b-competitive inhibitor added, c-normal enzyme reaction
D a-normal enzyme reaction, b-non-competitive inhibitor added, c-allosteric inhibitor added
Question 12

In which one of the following sets of three items each belong to the category mentioned against them?

A Lysine, glycine, thiamine — Amino acids
B Myosin, oxytocin and gastric — Hormones
C Rennin, helicase and hyaluronidase — Enzymes
D Optic nerve, oculomotor, vagus — Sensory nerves

 

Question 13

Assertion: Arachidic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid.

Reason: There are one or more double bonds between carbon atoms in unsaturated fatty acids.

A Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
B Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of Assertion.
C Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
D Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Question 14

Assertion:  A coenzymes  or  metal  ions  that  is  very  tightly  bound  to  enzyme  protein  is called prosthetic group.

Reason: A complete, catalytically active enzyme together with its bound prosthetic group is called apoenzyme.

A Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
B Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of Assertion.
C Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
D Both Assertion and Reason are false.

 

Question 15

Given below are two statements A and B. Choose the correct answer related to the statements.

Statement A – Amino acids are amphoteric in their function.

Statement B – All amino acids are necessary for our body.

A Statement A is wrong, statement B is correct
B Both the statements A and B are wrong
C Statement A is correct, statement B is wrong
D Both the statements A and B are correct

Enzyme: MCQs Quiz – 1

Question 1

The general mechanism is that an enzyme acts by

A reducing the energy of activation
B increasing the energy of activation
C decreasing the pH
D increasing the pH
Question 2

The coenzyme is

A often a metal
B always a protein
C often a vitamin
D always an inorganic compound

 

Question 3

An enzyme that joins the ends of two strands of nucleic acid is

A polymerase
B ligase
C synthetase
D helicase
Question 4

Which of the following is produced with the combination of apoenzyme and coenzyme?

A Holoenzyme
B Enzyme substrate complex
C Prosthetic group
D Enzyme product complex

 

Question 5

An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of

A succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
B cytochrome oxidase by cyanide
C hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate
D carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide
Question 6

Blocking of enzyme action by blocking its active sites is

A allosteric inhibition
B feedback inhibition
C competitive inhibition
D non-competitive inhibition

 

Question 7

Diastase takes part in digestion of ______.

A Protein
B Starch
C Amino acids
D Fat
Question 8

Enzyme catalyzing rearrangement of atomic groupings without altering molecular weight or number of atoms is

A ligase
B isomerase
C oxidoreductase
D hydrolase

 

Question 9

Enzyme complex involved in alcoholic fermentation is

A Zymase
B Invertase
C Lipase
D Amylase
Question 10

Zymogen or proenzyme is a

A Modulator
B Vitamin
C Enzyme precursor
D Hormone

 

Question 11

Enzymes are basically made up of

A Fats
B Proteins
C Nucleic acids
D Vitamins
Question 12

Catalysts are different from enzymes in

A functional at high temperature
B not used up in reaction
C being proteinaceous
D having high rate diffusion

 

Question 13

Enzymes are polymers of

A Hexose sugar
B Amino acids
C Fatty acids
D Inorganic phosphate
Question 14

The enzyme which hydrolyses starch to maltose is

A protease
B amylase
C lactase
D maltase

 

Question 15

Value needed for enzyme action is ______.

A Low Km
B Low Ki
C High Km
D High Ki

Enzyme: MCQs Quiz – 2

Question 1

Enzymes are sensitive to

A cold
B cell wall
C heat
D pressure
Question 2

Specificity of protein in enzyme action depends upon

A Active sites
B Km constant
C Linear sequence of amino acids
D Turn over number

 

Question 3

ELISA tests are used to

A Isolate DNA sequence
B Purity proteins
C Separate viral RNA
D Identify specific proteins
Question 4

In which of the following organisms enzymes are absent

A Fungi
B Viruses
C Algae
D Bacteria

 

Question 5

Enzymes exist in the cells as

A Solution
B Crystals
C Solids
D Colloids
Question 6

Enzymes functional inside the cells are called

A endoenzymes
B exoenzymes
C apoenzymes
D isoenzymes

 

Question 7

Enzymes having slightly different molecules structure but performing identical activity are

A Apoenzymes
B Isoenzymes
C Holoenzymes
D Coenzymes
Question 8

Enzymes, vitamins and hormones are common in

A Enhancing oxidative metabolism
B Being synthesised in the body of organisms
C Being proteinaceous
D Regulating metabolism

 

Question 9

Which of the following influence feedback inhibition of enzyme?

A End product
B External factors
C Enzyme
D Substrate
Question 10

Hydrolysis of starch occurs with the help of

A Peptidase
B Amylase
C Sucrose
D Lipase

 

Question 11

In a cell, digestive enzymes mostly occur in

A Mitochondria
B Lysosomes
C Ribosome
D Plastids
Question 12

A protein having both structural and enzymatic traits is

A Collagen
B Trypsin
C Myosin
D Actin

 

Question 13

Km value of enzyme is substrate concentration at

A 1/2 V max
B 2 V max
C 1/4 V max
D 4 V max
Question 14

One common example of feedback inhibition would be ______.

A Allosteric inhibition of hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate
B Reaction between succinic dehydrogenase and succinic acid
C Cyanide and cytochrome reaction
D Sulfa drugs and folic acid synthesis in bacteria

 

Question 15

NADP+ is

A Enzyme activator
B Ion carrier
C Hydrogen acceptor
D Electron acceptor

Enzyme: MCQs Quiz – 3

Question 1

The first enzyme to be purified and crystallized was

A Urease
B Diastase
C Insulin
D Zymase
Question 2

Beadle and Tatum showed that each kind of mutant bread mould they studied lacked a specific enzyme. Their experiments demonstrated that

A Cells need specific enzymes in order to function
B Genes are made of DNA
C Genes carry information for making proteins
D Enzymes are required to repair damaged DNA information

 

Question 3

Many enzymes are secreted in inactive form to protect

A Cell Membrane
B Mitochondria
C Cell proteins
D Cell DNA
Question 4

Most of the members of vitamin B complex act as

A Cofactor
B Coenzyme
C Prosthetic group
D Apoenzyme

 

Question 5

Restriction endonuclease is employed for

A Cutting RNA
B Cutting single stranded DNA
C Cutting double stranded DNA
D Joining strands of DNA
Question 6

Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which

A Remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule
B Make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule
C Recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase
D Restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase

 

Question 7

Ribozyme is

A RNA without phosphate
B RNA with sugar
C RNA with enzyme activity
D RNA with extra phosphate
Question 8

The activity of succinate dehydrogenase is inhibited by

A Glycolate
B Pyruvate
C Malonate
D Phosphoglycerate

 

Question 9

The enzyme responsible for the reduction of molecular nitrogen to the level of ammonia in the leguminous root nodule is

A nitrogenase
B nitrate reductase
C nitrite reductase
D all of the above
Question 10

The non protein part of an enzyme is known as

A Holoenzyme
B Vitamin
C Apoenzyme
D Prosthetic group

 

Question 11

The polypeptide or protein part of the enzyme is called

A Apoenzyme
B Holoenzyme
C Prosthetic group
D Zymogen
Question 12

Turn over number of an enzyme is dependent upon

A Size of enzyme
B Molecular weight of enzyme
C Active sites
D Concentration of substrate

 

Question 13

Which one of the following is resistant to enzyme action?

A Leaf cuticle
B Cork
C Wood fibre
D Pollen exine
Question 14

Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?

A Textile – amylase
B Detergents – lipase
C Alcohol – nitrogenase
D Fruit juice – pectinase

 

Question 15

Which one of the following statements is true with reference to enzymes?

A Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
B Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
C Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
D Holoenzyme = Coenzyme – Apoenzyme

 

Digestive system and Nutrition: Quiz – 1

Question 1

Enterokinase occurs in

A Salivary juice
B Gastric juice
C Intestinal juice
D Pancreatic juice
Question 2

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

A Vitamin B12 – Pernicious anaemia
B Vitamin B1 – Beriberi
C Vitamin B2 – Pellagra
D Vitamin C – Scurvy

 

Question 3

Bile helps in digestion of fats through

A Breaking fat into small pieces
B Emulsification
C Forming muscles
D none of these
Question 4

Bile secretion occurs in the proportion of

A Amount of protein in food
B Amount of fat in food
C Amount of carbohydrate in food
D Uncertain

 

Question 5

If a patient is advised to take more meat, butter milk and eggs in his diet. The person is

A Suffering from rickets
B Can not see in the dark
C Suffering from scurry
D Suffering from Kwashiorkor disease
Question 6

Correct enzyme-substrate pair is

A Maltose-lactase
B Protein-amylase
C Carbohydrate-lipase
D Casein-rennin

 

Question 7

A pair of small lymphatic tissue present at the sides of root tongue is called as

A Epiglottis
B Tonsils
C Thyroid
D Adenoids
Question 8

A triglyceride molecule has

A Three fatty acids with one glycerol molecule
B One fatty acid with one glycerol molecule
C Three fatty acids with two glycerol molecules
D One fatty acid with three glycerol molecule

 

Question 9

Anxiety and eating spicy food together in an otherwise normal human, may lead to

A Diarrhoea
B Vomiting
C Indigestion
D Jaundice
Question 10

Aneurin is the other name for

A Vitamin B2
B Vitamin B6
C Vitamin B12
D Vitamin B1

 

Question 11

Bilirubin and biliverdin are present in

A Pancreatic juice
B Saliva
C Bile
D Intestinal juice
Question 12

Brunner’s glands are found in

A Mucosa of oesophagus
B Mucosa of stomach
C Submucosa of duodenum
D Mucosa of ileum

 

Question 13

Brush-border enzymes are found in

A phagocytic vesicles
B microvilli
C zymogen granules
D goblet cells
Question 14

Calcium deficiency in the body can be found due to absence of

A Vitamin C
B Vitamin B
C Vitamin D
D Vitamin E

 

Question 15

Calcium occurs in

A Cells of respiratory system
B Bones and teeth
C All body cells
D 3% of mineral content

Digestive system and Nutrition: Quiz – 2

Question 1

Copper deficiency causes

A Anaemia and damages to CNS
B Pellagra
C Xerophthalmia
D Influenza
Question 2

Crypts of lieberkuhn secrete

A Succus entericus
B Ptyalin
C Cholecystokinin
D Cellulases

 

Question 3

Deamination occurs in liver to

A make use of excess amino acid
B synthesis amino acids
C get rid of urea from blood
D convert proteins to urea and uric acid
Question 4

Deficiency of vitamin C can lead to

A dermatitis
B lips fissure
C scurvy
D rickets

 

Question 5

Deficiency of vitamin D can lead to

A dermatitis
B lips fissure
C scurvy
D rickets
Question 6

Digestion of starch takes place in

A Buccal cavity and esophagus
B Buccal cavity and duodenum
C Stomach and duodenum
D Duodenum only

 

Question 7

Which vitamin can be synthesized by bacteria inside gut?

A Vitamin B1
B Vitamin C
C Vitamin K
D Vitamin D
Question 8

Duct leading from parotid gland and opening into vestibule is

A Wolffian duct
B Stenson’s duct
C Haversian duct
D Infra-orbit duct

 

Question 9

During prolonged fasting, in what sequence are the following organic compounds used up by the body?

A First carbohydrates, next proteins and lastly lipids
B First carbohydrates, next fats and lastly proteins
C First fats, next carbohydrates and lastly proteins
D First proteins next lipids and lastly carbohydrates
Question 10

Emulsification of fat occurs by

A Bile salts
B Pancreatic juice
C Bile pigments
D Succus entericus

 

Question 11

Epithelial cells of intestine involved in food absorption have on their surface

A Zymogen granules
B Phagocytic vesicles
C Pinocytic vesicles
D Microvilli
Question 12

Excessive intake of alcohol causes

A Liver cirrhosis
B Dermatitis
C Jaundice
D Lung fibrosis

 

Question 13

Gastric juice contains

A Pepsin, HCl
B Pepsin, Trypsin
C Pepsin, Renin
D None of these
Question 14

Which one of the following pairs of food components in humans reaches the stomach totally undigested?

A Starch and cellulose
B Protein and starch
C Starch and fat
D Fat and cellulose

 

Question 15

Hydrolytic enzymes occur in

A Ribosomes
B Lysosomes
C ER
D Golgi body

Digestive system and Nutrition: Quiz – 3

Question 1

Excess Intake of which of the following vitamins can cause ‘Hyperkeratosis’?

A Vitamin C
B Vitamin B12
C Vitamin A
D Vitamin K
Question 2

Emulsification of fat takes place through

A Liver enzymes
B Bile pigments
C Bile salts
D Enzymes of small intestine

 

Question 3

Enterokinase converts

A Pepsinogen into pepsin
B Protein into polypeptide
C Trypsinogen into trypsin
D All of these
Question 4

In glycolysis ultimately

A starch is converted into glucose
B glucose is converted into fructose
C protein is converted into glucose
D glucose is converted into pyruric acid

 

Question 5

When breast feeding is replaced by less nutritive food low in proteins and calories; the infants below the age of one year are likely to suffer from

A Pellagra
B Marasmus
C Rickets
D Kwashiorkor
Question 6

In the absence of enterokinase, the digestion of _______ would be affected in our intestine.

A Amino acid
B Albumin
C Starch
D Maltose

 

Question 7

Which cells in liver act as phagocytes?

A Acinar cells
B Hensen’s cells
C Kupffer cells
D Dieter cells
Question 8

Keratinization of the skin is prevented by

A Vitamin D
B Vitamin A
C Vitamin B
D Vitamin C

 

Question 9

Intestinal villi are mainly connected with

A Secretion
B Absorption
C Assimilation
D Ultra-filtration
Question 10

Lecithin is

A Fat
B Steroid
C Phospholipid
D Protein

 

Question 11

In duodenum the enzyme which breaks down starch to maltose is

A maltase
B trypsin
C lipase
D pancreatic amylase
Question 12

Lipase acts on

A Triglycerides
B Proteins
C Starch
D All of these

 

Question 13

Main difference between brown fat and white fat is that the cells of brown fat

A Are polygonal in shape
B Have more mitochondria
C Are multi colored
D All of these
Question 14

Which of the following is un-matching pair?

A Kidney – nephron
B Liver – hepatocytes
C Pancreas – Glisson’s capsule
D Stomach – cardiac glands

 

Question 15

Oxyntic cells in stomach secrete

A HCl
B Mucus
C Pepsin
D Renin

Digestive system and Nutrition: Quiz – 4

Question 1

Which of the following is required for the development of erythrocytes?

A Vitamin E
B Vitamin K
C Vitamin B12
D Vitamin A
Question 2

Peyer’s patches found in the small intestine are

A Epithelial tissue
B Glandular tissue
C Lymphatic tissue
D Haemopoietic tissue

 

Question 3

Ptyalin is

A Strongly acidic
B Slightly neutral
C Slightly acidic
D Strongly alkaline
Question 4

Rickets can be prevented by taking

A Calciferol
B Green vegetables
C Carrots
D Oranges

 

Question 5

Seminal plasma in humans is rich in

A Fructose and certain enzymes but poor in calcium
B Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
C Fructose and calcium but has no enzymes
D Glucose and certain enzymes but has no calcium
Question 6

Surgical removal of gall bladder in human beings would lead to

A Jaundice
B Increased acidity in the intestine
C Impairment of the digestion of fat
D none of these

 

Question 7

Sweetest sugar is

A Fructose
B Sucrose
C Glucose
D Lactose
Question 8

Tadpole is

A Omnivorous
B Herbivorous
C Carnivorous
D Sanguivorous

 

Question 9

Taste buds for bitter taste are found on tongue at

A posterior part
B on basal surface
C tip
D lateral sides
Question 10

The absorption of glycerol, fatty acids and monoglycerides takes place by the

A Lymph vessels within the villi
B Colon
C Capillaries within the villi
D Wall of the stomach

 

Question 11

The catalytic efficiency of two different enzymes can be compared by the

A Molecular size of enzyme
B Km value
C pH optimum value
D Formation of the product
Question 12

Name the substance which is not a product formed in the small intestine?

A amino acids
B Lipids
C Lipoproteins
D proteins

 

Question 13

The cells in the wall of intestine are stimulated to produce secretin by

A Cholecystokinin
B Acid in chyme
C Bile juice
D Gastrin
Question 14

The characteristics Brunner’s glands found in duodenum secrete hormones:

A Kinase, estrogen
B Secretin, cholecystokinin
C Prolactin, parathormone
D Estradiol, progesterone

 

Question 15

Secretin stimulates production of

A Bile
B Gastric juice
C Saliva
D Pancreatic juice

Organ that produces bile is ______.

A pancreas
B esophagus
C liver
D stomach
Question 2

The component in bile which helps to emulsify fat in the duodenum is

A bile salts
B biliverdin
C bilirubin
D cholesterol

 

Question 3

The HCl in gastric juice converts:

A Disaccharide to monosaccharide
B Pepsinogen to pepsin
C Prorennin to rennin
D Polypeptide to peptide
Question 4

Enzymes that is found on the mucosa of the intestinal villi is

A peptidase
B trypsin
C amylase
D lipase

 

Question 5

Which factor is required for maturation of erythrocytes?

A Vitamin A
B Vitamin B12
C Vitamin C
D Vitamin D
Question 6

The hardest substance in the vertebrate body is

A Keratin
B Chondrin
C Dentine
D Enamel

 

Question 7

The glucose is converted into glycogen in liver and stored in

A Liver and spleen
B Liver and muscle
C Liver
D Spleen and muscles
Question 8

The main cause of anaemia is

A Deficiency of Ca
B Deficiency of Na
C Deficiency of Fe
D Deficiency of Mg

 

Question 9

The movements in the gut wall are known as

A Metachronal
B Diastole
C Systole
D Peristalsis
Question 10

Which enzyme is used in alcoholic fermentation of yeast?

A Maltase
B Invertase
C Sucrase
D Zymase

 

Question 11

The pH scale is used to measure

A Electric charge on ion
B Speed with which ions form
C Size of ions
D Concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution
Question 12

Which one of the following statements is true regarding digestion and absorption of food in humans?

A About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mouth
B Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen
C Fructose and amino acids are absorbed through intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions like Na+
D Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from intestine into blood capillaries

 

Question 13

The vitamin essential for blood clotting is

A Vitamin A
B Vitamin D
C Vitamin B
D Vitamin K
Question 14

Enzymes that is found on the mucosa of the intestinal villi is

A peptidase
B trypsin
C amylase
D lipase

 

Question 15

To prevent entry of food into the trachea the opening is guarded by

A Epiglottis
B Hard palate
C Glottis
D Soft palate

Digestive system and Nutrition: Quiz – 5(b)

Question 1

Sericteries are modified ______.

A intestinal glands
B endocrine glands
C gastric glands
D Salivary glands
Question 2

Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and secreted by

A Liver cells
B Endothelial cells (cells lining the blood vessels)
C Macula densa cells
D Juxtaglomerular (JG) cells

 

Question 3

Which one of the followings is a fat-soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?

A Retinol – Xerophthalmia
B Ascorbic acid – Scurvy
C Calciferol – Pellagra
D Cobalamin – Beri-beri
Question 4

The main function of lacteals in the villi of human small intestine is the absorption of______.

A Water and mineral salts
B Amino acids and glucose
C Glucose and vitamins
D Fatty acids and glycerol

 

Question 5

Continued consumption of a diet rich in butter, red meat and eggs for a long period may lead to

A urine laden with ketone bodies
B kidney stones
C vitamin A toxicity
D hypercholesterolemia
Question 6

Sphincter of Oddi guards

A Hepatopancreatic duct
B Common bile duct
C Pancreatic duct
D Cystic duct

 

Question 7

Liver is the largest gland in the body and associated with various functions. Choose the incorrect one from the followings.

A Processes and stores nutrients
B Involved in blood glucose homeostasis
C Produces bile for emulsification of fats
D Secrete hormone called gastric
Question 8

The backflow of faecal matter in the large intestine is prevented by the presence of

A pyloric sphincter
B sphincter of Oddi
C ileocecal (ileocaecal) valve
D gastric-oesophageal sphincter

 

Question 9

Match Lit I with List II and choose the correct option

List I List II
(a) Salivary amylase (i) Proteins
(b) Bile salts (ii) Milk proteins
(c) Renin (iii) Starch
(d) Pepsin (iv) Lipids
(e) Steapsin (v) Emulsification of fats
A a – v, b – iv, c – i, d – ii, e – iii
B a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d – v, e – i
C a – ii, b – iv, c – iii, d – I, e – v
D a – iii, b – v, c – ii, d – i, e – iv
Question 10

Match column I with column II and choose the correct option:

Column I Column II
(i) Goblet cells (a) Antibacterial agent
(ii) Lysozyme (b) Mucus
(iii) Saliva (c) HCl
(iv) Oxyntic cells (d) Sublingual gland
A i – a, ii – c, iii – d, iv – b
B i – b, ii – c, iii – a, iv – d
C i – d, ii – a, iii – b, iv – c
D i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c

 

Question 11

Read the statements A and B.

  1. A) The human small intestine is the longest portion in the alimentary canal
  2. B) Absorption of digested food requires a very large surface area

Identify the correct choice on the two statements.

A Statements A and B are both correct.
B Statement A is correct, B is wrong.
C Statement B is correct, A is wrong.
D Both the statements are wrong.
Question 12

Which one of the following pairs of the kind of cells and their secretion of correctly matched?

A Oxyntic cells — A secretion with pH between 2.0 and 3.0
B Alpha cells of islets of Langerhans — Secretion that decreases blood sugar level
C Kupffer cells — A digestive enzyme that hydrolyses nucleic acids
D Sebaceous glands — A secretion that evaporates for cooling

 

Question 13

Match the types of cells listed under column I with the secretions given under column II. Choose the answer which gives the correct combination of the alphabets of the two columns.

Column – I (Types of cells) Column — II (Secretions)
(A) Beta cells (p) Lysozyme
(B) Mast cells (q) Mucus
(C) Paneth cells (r) Histamine
(D) Acinar cells (s) Insulin
(t) Pancreatic enzymes
A A – s, B – r, C – p, D – t
B A – q, B – r, C – p, D – t
C A – s, B – q, C – p, D – t
D A – t, B – q, C – r, D – s
Question 14

Consider the following statements:

(A) Niacin (the anti-pellagra vitamin) is present in meats, fish, peanuts, poultry, fruits and leafy green vegetables.

(B) Crypts of Lieberkuhn are present in the liver

(C) Steapsin is the pancreatic amylase

A A and C correct
B A and C incorrect
C B and C correct
D B and C incorrect

 

Question 15

The following is a scheme showing the fate of carbohydrates during digestion in the human alimentary canal. Identify the enzymes acting at stages indicated as A, B, C and D. Choose the correct option from those given.

A A = Amylase, B = Maltase, C = Lactase, D = Invertase
B A = Amylase, B = Maltase, C = Invertase, D = Lactase
C A = Amylase, B = Invertase, C = Maltase, I) = Lactase
D A = Amylase, B = Lactase, C = Maltase, D = Invertase

Digestive system and Nutrition: Quiz – 6

Question 1

Column I contains names of the sphincter muscles of the alimentary canal and column II contains their locations. Match them properly and choose the correct answer.

  Column I   Column II
A Sphincter of ani internus p opening of hepatopancreatic duct into duodenum
B Cardiac sphincter q between duodenum and posterior stomach
C Sphincter of oddi r guarding the terminal part of alimentary canal
D Ileocaecal sphincter s between esophagus and anterior stomach
E Pyloric sphincter t Between small intestine and bowel
A A = r, B = q, C = s, D = p, E = t  
B A = q, B = t, C = p, D = s, E = r  
C A = r, B = s, C = p, D = t, E = q  
D A = s, B = r, C = p, D = q, E = t  
Question 2  

The diagram of large intestine of man is given below. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C, D, E and F.

A A = Caecum, B = Vermiform appendix, C = Sigmoid, D = Ascending colon, E = Transverse colon, F = Descending colon.
B A = Sigmoid, B = Vermiform appendix, C = Ascending colon, D = Transverse colon, E = Descending colon, F = Caecum.
C A = Sigmoid, B = Vermiform appendix, C = Descending colon, D = Transverse colon, E = Ascending colon, F = Caecum.
D A = Caecum, B = Vermiform appendix, C = Ascending colon, D = Transverse colon, E = Descending colon, F = Sigmoid.

 

Question 3

Liver the largest gland is associated with several functions. Which one of the following is stated incorrectly?

A Stores glucose as glycogen
B Manufactures bile, converts the amino groups to urea
C Makes all the cholesterol that human body needs
D Secrete hormone called gastric
Question 4

Which one of the following statement is not correct about intestinal villi?

A A multitudinous finger-like projections having many microvilli
B Increase the internal surface area of the intestinal wall.
C Supplied with capillaries and the lacteal vessels
D Participate only in digestion of fats

 

Question 5

The following list describes four major digestive enzymes. Which one of the following is incorrect?

A Salivary amylase – Salivary glands – Mouth
B Pepsin – Gastric glands – Stomach
C Nuclease – Small intestine – Stomach
D Lipase – Pancreas – Small intestine
Question 6

Carrier ions like Na+ facilitate the absorption of substances like

A Fructose and some amino acids
B Amino acids and glucose
C Glucose and fatty acids
D Fatty acids and glycerol

 

Question 7

Which one of the following is the correct matching of the site of action on the given substrate, the enzyme acting upon it and the end product?

(1) Stomach: Fats  —Lipase—► micelles
(2) Duodenum: Triglycerides —Trypsin—► monoglycerides
(3) Small intestine: Starch —(α)Amylase—► Disaccharide (Maltose)
(4) Small intestine: Proteins —Pepsin—► Amino acids
A (1)
B (2)
C (3)
D (4)
Question 8

If for some reason our goblet cells are non-functional this will adversely affect

A Smooth movement of food down the intestine
B Production of somatostatin
C Secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands
D Maturation of sperms

 

Question 9

What will happen if the secretion of parietal cells of gastric glands is blocked with an inhibitor?

A Enterokinase will not be released from the duodenal mucosa and so trypsinogen is not converted to trypsin
B Gastric juice will be deficient in chymosin
C Gastric juice will be deficient in pepsinogen
D In the absence of HCl secretion, inactive pepsinogen is not converted into the active enzyme pepsin.
Question 10

A young infant may be feeding entirely on mother’s milk which is white in colour but the stool which the infant passes out is quite yellowish. What is this yellow colour due to

A Pancreatic juice poured into duodenum
B Intestinal juice
C Bile pigments passed through bile juice
D Undigested milk protein casein

 

Question 11

Bile contribution to digestion is

A Nucleic acid metabolism
B Phagocytosis
C Emulsification of dietary lipids
D Carbohydrate digestion
Question 12

Name the hormone that stimulates the secretion of gastric juice.

A Renin
B Enterokinase
C Enterogastrone
D Gastrin

 

Question 13

Bile salts act as activator of which enzyme?

A Pepsinogen
B Trypsinogen
C Lipase
D Pancreatic amylase
Question 14

Aggregates of lymphoid tissue present in the distal portion of the small intestine are known as

A Villi
B Peyer’s patches
C Rugae
D Choroid plexus

 

Question 15

Which one of the followings is not part of the large intestine?

A rectum
B colon
C cecum
D duodenum

Human Respiratory System: MCQs Quiz – 1

Question 1

Which of the following statements is true about Trachea in a respiratory system?

A It functions as passages of air to each alveolus
B It functions for sound production
C It Acts as passage of air to bronchi
D It Lowers the surface tension
Question 2

______ lies in front of esophagus.

A Trachea
B Glottis
C Larynx
D Epiglottis

 

Question 3

Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in the chloroplasts and mitochondria is based on

A Membrane potential
B Accumulation of K ions
C Proton gradient
D Accumulation of Na ions
Question 4

Cilia and mucous are found in ______.

A Trachea
B Glottis
C Larynx
D Epiglottis

 

Question 5

Dissociation curve shifts to the right when

A CO2 concentration decreases
B CO2 concentration increases
C O2 concentration decrease
D CL concentration increase
Question 6

Due to breakdown and collapse of ______ lung tissue is destroyed.

A eustachian tubes
B bronchioles
C alveoli
D microtrachea

 

Question 7

During expiration the diaphragm becomes

A Dome-shaped
B Flattened
C Normal
D Oblique
Question 8

During pneumonia which of the following gets accumulated in lung tissue?

A RBC
B Fluid WBC
C Blood
D Plasma

 

Question 9

During swallowing of food, ______ is the opening covered by epiglottis.

A trachea
B glottis
C larynx
D epiglottis
Question 10

During which respiration, the respiratory pigment hemoglobin combines with oxygen in the lungs?

A Aerobic cellular
B External
C Internal
D Circulatory

 

Question 11

Each of the alveolar sac is surrounded by

A capillaries
B veins
C arteries
D primarily lymphatic ducts
Question 12

Enzyme carbonic anhydrase, in ______ speeds up the reaction.

A Platelets
B Leucocytes
C Lymphocytes
D RBCs

 

Question 13

Esophagus opens only during

A speaking
B exhaling
C inhaling
D swallowing
Question 14

Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between alveolar air and blood is governed by _______.

A diffusion
B blood pressure
C gravity
D active transport

 

Question 15

Hamburger’s phenomenon is also called

A Hydrogen shift
B Bicarbonate shift
C Chloride shift
D Sodium shift

Human Respiratory System: MCQs Quiz – 2

Question 1

Hemoglobin retains oxygen and releases it in the ______.

A heart
B lungs
C glottis
D tissues
Question 2

Human nose contains ______ nasal cavities

A one
B two
C three
D four

 

Question 3

In the human body which concentration is regulated mainly by the kidneys?

A bicarbonate
B carbaminohemoglobin
C deoxyhemoglobin
D oxyhemoglobin
Question 4

In which of the following restrictive lung disease the vital capacity is reduced to below normal levels.

A pneumonia
B tuberculosis
C pulmonary fibrosis
D all of the above

 

Question 5

In which one of the following do the two names refer to one and the same things?

A Krebs cycle and Calvin cycle
B Tricarboxylic acid cycle and citric acid cycle
C Tricarboxylic acid cycle and urea cycle
D Citric acid cycle and Calvin cycle
Question 6

Lungs are enclosed by

A diaphragm
B pleural membranes
C bronchiole membranes
D sternum

 

Question 7

Number of lobes in both right land left lungs are respectively

A three, two
B two, three
C two, one
D three, three
Question 8

Rheumatic fever can cause damage

A Alveoli of the Lungs
B heart valves
C heart muscles
D pleural membranes function

 

Question 9

The Medullary Respiratory centre is under

A Nervous control
B Physical control
C Chemical Control
D Electric control
Question 10

The oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the right by an increase in ______.

A H+ concentration
B PCO2
C temperature
D All of these

 

Question 11

The primary muscle of inspiration which forms the floor of the thoracic cavity is ______.

A pleural membrane
B sternum
C ventricle
D diaphragm
Question 12

The tube that runs from the middle ear to the pharynx

A epiglottis
B trachea
C glottis
D auditory tubes

 

Question 13

The tube which leads to the stomach from the throat is

A esophagus
B trachea
C glottis
D larynx
Question 14

Voice box or ______ is the portion of the respiratory tract which contains the vocal cords for producing sound.

A trachea
B glottis
C larynx
D epiglottis

 

Question 15

Which one of the followings is the function of Thoracic cavity?

A Forms the floor of the thoracic cavity
B Encloses the lungs
C Contains the respiratory organs
D None of these

Human Respiratory System: MCQs Quiz – 3

Question 1

Respiratory center is located in the ________.

A Pneumotaxic center
B Medulla oblongata
C Alveoli
D Apneustic center
Question 2

Bronchi branch into the tubes of smaller diameters (less than 1 mm) known as ______.

A Microtrachea
B Bronchioles
C Alveoli
D Eustachian tubes

 

Question 3

What is the instrument that measures the amount of air inhaled and exhaled with each breath?

A Sphygmomanometer
B Hygrometer
C Stethoscope
D Spirometer
Question 4

Which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding the pharynx?

A Organ of the upper respiratory tract
B Connects to the larynx
C Contributes to the production of speech
D Composed of smooth muscle

 

Question 5

Emphysema, a chronic disorder is high in cigarette smokers. In such cases the ______ of the person is/are found damaged.

A Plasma membrane
B Alveolar walls
C Bronchioles
D Respiratory muscles
Question 6

Asthma is due to

A Elasticity of lungs is reduced
B Degradation of alveolar wall
C Bronchioles constrict due to muscle spasms
D Damage in diaphragm

 

Question 7

Amount of air in the lungs that remains after deep breathing is called ______.

A Dead space
B Residual volume
C Vital capacity
D Ventilation rate
Question 8

The amount of air a person takes in during normal, restful breathing is called the ______.

A Dead space
B Tidal volume
C Vital capacity
D Ventilation rate

 

Question 9

What protects the moist membranes of the respiratory tract?

A Mucus and cilia
B A ‘c’ shaped cartilage rings
C A pebbly epidermal surface
D An acidic glands
Question 10

Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from body tissues into the blood is present as

A 70% carbaminohemoglobin and 30% as bicarbonate
B Carbaminohemoglobin in RBCs
C Bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs
D Free CO2 in blood plasma

 

Question 11

Which one of the following is NOT correct?

A The nasal cavity warms and humidifies the air before it enters the lungs.
B The right lung is composed of three lobes, but the left lung has only two lobes
C Lung volumes and vital capacity measure lung function.
D The visceral pleura is in direct contact with the chest wall.
Question 12

The kind of tissue that forms the supportive structure in our Pinna (external ears) is also found in

A Tip of the nose
B Vertebrae
C Nails
D Ear ossicles

 

Question 13

Which two of the following changes (a–d) usually tend to occur in the plain dwellers when they move to high altitudes (3,500 m or more)?

(a) Increase in red blood cell size

(b) Increase in red blood cell production

(c) Increased breathing rate

(d) Increase in thrombocyte count

Changes occurring are

A (a) and (b)
B (b) and (c)
C (c) and (d)
D (a) and (d)
Question 14

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct about primary bronchi?

A The trachea splits into the primary bronchi
B Primary bronchi supply air to the right and left lungs
C These are lined with stratified squamous epithelium
D Supporting cartilage of primary bronchi is plate-like shaped

 

Question 15

The respiratory membrane, through which gas must diffuse, consists of the followings EXCEPT:

A Alveolar cells and endothelial cells of the capillary
B Lymphatic vessel basement membrane
C Epithelial basement membrane
D Capillary basement membrane

Human Respiratory System: MCQs Quiz – 4

Question 1

Opening to the trachea is covered by a small flap of tissues termed as the ______.

A Glottis
B Trachea
C Epiglottis
D Larynx
Question 2

The exchange of gases between inhaled air and blood is referred as ______.

A Cellular respiration
B External respiration
C Internal respiration
D Circulatory respiration

 

Question 3

The maximum volume of air contained in the lung by a full forced inhalation is called

A Vital capacity
B Tidal volume
C Total lung capacity
D Inspiratory capacity
Question 4

Aerobic respiratory pathway is also termed as ______ pathway.

A Anabolic
B Catabolic
C Creatine phosphate
D Amphibolic

 

Question 5

The maximum volume of air that can be released from the lungs by forceful expiration after deepest inspiration is called the ______.

A Total lung capacity
B Vital capacity
C Tidal volume
D Ventilation rate
Question 6

Which one is the cofactor of carbonic anhydrase?

A Cu
B Zn
C Fe
D Mg

 

Question 7

The trachea divides into two smaller tubes called ______.

A Bronchi
B Trachea
C Microtrachea
D Eustachian tubes
Question 8

Listed below are four respiratory capacities (a – d) and four jumbled respiratory volumes of a normal human adult

Respiratory capacities Respiratory volumes
(a) Residual volume 2500 mL
(b) Vital capacity 3500 mL
(c) Inspiratory reserve volume 1200 mL
(d) Inspiratory capacity 4500 mL

Which one of the following is the correct matching of two capacities and volumes?

A (a) 4500 mL, (b) 3500 mL
B (b) 2500 mL, (c) 4500 mL
C (c) 1200 mL, (d) 2500 mL
D (d) 3500 mL, (a) 1200 mL

 

Question 9

Inner surface of the bronchi, bronchioles and fallopian tubes are lined by

A Cubical epithelium
B Columnar epithelium
C Squamous epithelium
D Ciliated epithelium
Question 10

Which one of the following statement is NOT correct regarding trachea?

A It usually lies posterior to the muscular esophagus.
B It splits into the right and left bronchi to supply air to the lungs
C Opening to the trachea is covered by epiglottis.
D Tracheal rings are C-shaped

 

Question 11

Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

A Tuberculosis is caused by a rod-shaped bacterium, Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
B Tuberculosis is highly infectious and can be spread by airborne droplets.
C Tuberculosis can’t be treated by antibiotics
D In Pulmonary Tuberculosis the elasticity of lungs is reduced.
Question 12

Which one of the followings is NOT correct regarding Exhalation (expiration)?

A Expiration is typically a passive process
B Exhalation starts when the expiratory muscles relax
C The elastic properties of the lung help to expel deoxygenated air during exhalation
D During exhalation, elastic properties of the lung help to expel deoxygenated air

 

Question 13

Which one of the followings is correct regarding larynx?

A It prevents foreign objects from entering the trachea
B It houses the vocal cords
C It is an organ made of cartilage and connects the pharynx to the trachea
D All of these are correct.
Question 14

Which one of the following is a possibility for most of us in regard to breathing, by making a conscious effort?

A One can consciously breathe in and breathe out by moving the diaphragm alone, without moving the ribs at all
B The lungs can be made fully empty by forcefully breathing out all air from them
C One can breathe out air totally without oxygen
D One can breathe out air through eustachian tubes by closing both the nose and the mouth

 

Question 15

The figure given below shows a small part of human lung where exchange of gases takes place. In which one of the options given below, the one part A, B, C or D is correctly identified along with its function?

A B : Red blood cell – transport of CO2 mainly
B C : Arterial capillary – passes oxygen to tissues
C A : alveolar cavity – main site of exchange of respiratory gases
D D : Capillary wall – exchange of O2 and CO2 takes place here

Atherosclerosis refers to ailment of

A Kidney
B Heart
C Lungs
D Liver
Question 2

Which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood pressure?

A 190/110 mmHg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney
B 130/90 mmHg is considered high and requires treatment
C 100/55 mmHg is considered an ideal blood pressure
D 105/50 mmHg makes one very active

 

Question 3

A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in the human blood even after its uptake by the body tissues. This O2

A Helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelium tissues
B Acts as a reserve during muscular exercise
C Raises the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg
D Is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation at 96%
Question 4

A muscular wall is absent in

A Capillary
B Vein
C Venule
D Arteriole

 

Question 5

Adrenaline directly affects

A Oxyntic cells of stomach
B Sinoatrial node
C Islet of Langerhans
D Dorsal root ganglia of spinal cord
Question 6

All arteries carry oxygenated blood, except

A Pulmonary artery
B Renal artery
C Hepatic artery
D Cardiac artery

 

Question 7

An adult human has systolic and diastolic pressures as:

A 80 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg
B 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
C 50 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
D 80 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
Question 8

In sun our face becomes reddish due to

A Breakup of RBC and release of haemoglobin
B Expansion of blood capillaries
C Effect of light
D Irritation of skin

 

Question 9

Anticoagulant of fresh water leech is

A Sodium citrate
B Heparin
C Hirudin
D Chelating agent
Question 10

Arteries are best defined as the vessels which

A Carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ
B Supply oxygenated blood to the different organs
C Carry blood away from the heart to different organs
D Break up into capillaries which reunite to form a vein

 

Question 11

Artificial pace maker is transplanted in

A Inter auricular septum
B Below the collar bone
C Inter ventricular septum
D Right auricle
Question 12

Average cardiac output is

A 5.3 litre/minute
B 6.3 litre/minute
C 7.3 litre/minute
D 4 litre/minute

 

Question 13

Serum is

A Blood without corpuscles and fibrinogen
B Lymph without corpuscles
C Blood without fibrinogen
D Lymph
Question 14

Blood pressure increases and heart rate decreases in response to

A Exposure to high altitude
B Exercise
C Hemorrhage
D Increased intracranial pressure

 

Question 15

Blood pressure of a healthy person is

A 140 / 60
B 120 / 80
C 80 / 120
D 90 / 60

Circulation of Body Fluids: Quiz – 2

Question 1

Both erythrocytes and leucocytes are formed in

A Lymph nodes
B Bone marrow
C Thymus
D Arterial walls
Question 2

Brain completely depends on blood from the supply of

A Oxygen and glucose
B Oxygen and ATP
C Oxygen and electrolytes
D Glucose and ATP

 

Question 3

Bundle of His is a network of

A Nerve fibres distributed in ventricles
B Muscle fibres found only in the ventricle wall
C Muscle fibres distributed throughout the heart walls
D Nerve fibres found throughout the heart
Question 4

‘Bundle of His’ is a part of which one of the following organs in humans?

A Pancreas
B Brain
C Heart
D Kidney

 

Question 5

Cardiac output is defined as the amount of blood

A Pumped by both ventricles per second
B Received in heart per minute
C Pumped by each ventricle per minute
D Pumped by left atrium per minute
Question 6

Christmas disease is also known as

A Haemophilia B
B AIDS
C Haemophilia A
D Haemolytic jaundice

 

Question 7

Major part of the plasma consists of

A Organic substances
B Inorganic substances
C Blood cells
D Water
Question 8

Compared to blood our lymph has

A More RBCs and less WBCs
B No plasma
C Plasma without proteins
D More WBCs and no RBCs

 

Question 9

Diastole occurs due to

A Nerve impulse from vagus
B Elastic recoil of arteries
C Relaxation of heart muscles
D All of them
Question 10

During diastole

A Blood leaves ventricle
B Blood leaves heart
C Blood enters in heart
D Blood enters lungs

 

Question 11

During storage of blood anticoagulant added to it may be

A Sodium oxalate
B Sodium chloride
C Potassium chloride
D Thromboplastin
Question 12

Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) does not contain

A Factor VII
B Platelets
C Frozen protoplasm
D Gamma globulins

 

Question 13

Globulins contained in human blood plasma are primarily involved in

A Clotting of blood
B Defence mechanisms of body
C Osmotic balance of body fluids
D Oxygen transport in the blood
Question 14

Graveyard in RBCs is

A Liver
B Spleen
C Kidney
D Lymph glands

 

Question 15

Haemoglobin oxygen dissociation curve is

A Straight line
B Constant
C Sigmoid
D Parabolic

Circulation of Body Fluids: Quiz – 3

Question 1

Hardening of the arteries due to deposition of cholesterol is called

A Rhinitis
B Atherosclerosis
C Thrombosis
D Stenosis
Question 2

The most popularly known blood grouping is the ABO grouping. It is named ABO and not ABC because ‘‘O’’ in it refers to having

A No antigens A and B on RBCs
B Other antigens besides A and B on RBCs
C Overdominance of this type on the genes for A and B types
D One antibody only–either anti–A or anti–B on the RBCs

 

Question 3

Largest amount of urea is normally carried by

A Hepatic portal vein
B Renal artery
C Hepatic artery
D Hepatic vein
Question 4

The kind of epithelium which forms the inner walls of blood vessels is

A Squamous epithelium
B Cuboidal epithelium
C Columnar epithelium
D Ciliated columnar epithelium

 

Question 5

Heparin is

A Anti-allergic
B Blood diluter
C Anticoagulant
D Antiseptic
Question 6

Murmur is a disorder of

A SA node
B AV node
C Heart valves
D Pulmonary vein

 

Question 7

Heparin is produced by

A Liver cells
B Plasma cells
C Blood cells
D Spleen cells
Question 8

Hepatic portal system connects

A Liver to digestive system
B Kidney to liver
C Digestive system to liver
D Liver to kidneys

 

Question 9

In a cardiac output of 5250 ml/minute, with 75 heart beats per minute, the stroke volume is

A 80 ml
B 70 ml
C 60 ml
D 55 ml
Question 10

In a standard ECG which one of the following alphabets is the correct representation of the respectively activity of the human heart?

A P-depolarisation of atria
B R-repolarisation of ventricles
C S-start of systole
D T-end of diastole

 

Question 11

In a typical heart, if EDV is 120 ml of blood and ESV is 50 ml of blood, the stroke volume (SV) is

A 120 – 50 = 70 ml
B 120 + 50 = 170 ml
C 120 x 50 = 6000 ml
D 120 ÷ 50 = 2.4 ml
Question 12

In developing embryo RBCs are formed in

A Lymph node
B Bone marrow
C Liver
D Spleen

 

Question 13

Oxygenated blood occurs in

A Pulmonary artery
B Right atrium
C Right ventricle
D Pulmonary vein
Question 14

In ECG, P-R interval corresponds to

A Time interval between onset of ventricular contraction
B Time delay in A-V node
C S-A nodal conduction time
D Increased ventricular contraction

 

Question 15

In higher vertebrates, SA node helps in

A Opening of tricuspid valve
B Initiation of heart beat
C Conduction of blood
D Opening of bicuspid valve

Circulation of Body Fluids: Quiz – 4

Question 1

Atrioventricular valves are supported by strands of connective tissue called ______.

A endocardium
B myocardium
C chordae tendineae
D cardiac fibers
Question 2

Which one of the followings refers to blood cancer characterized by uncontrolled proliferation of abnormal/immature white blood cells in the bone marrow?

A Hypertension
B Atherosclerosis
C Leukemia
D Pulmonary embolism

 

Question 3

Consider the following statements about biomedical technologies:

(a) During open heart surgery blood is circulated in the heart-lung machine

(b) Blockage in coronary arteries is removed by angiography

(c) Computerised Axial Tomography (CAT) shows detailed internal structure as seen in a section of body

(d) X-ray provides clear and detailed images of organs like prostate glands and lungs

Which two of the above statements are correct?

A (a) and (b)
B (b) and (d)
C (c) and (d)
D (a) and (c)
Question 4

Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components is correctly interpreted below?

A Peak P and Peak R together – systolic and diastolic blood pressures
B Peak P – Initiation of left atrial contraction only
C Complex QRS – One complete pulse
D Peak T – Initiation of total cardiac contraction

 

Question 5

Which type of white blood cells are concerned with the release of histamine and the natural anti coagulant heparin?

A Monocytes
B Neutrophils
C Basophils
D Eosinophils
Question 6

What is true about RBCs in humans?

A They do not carry CO2 at all
B They carry about 20-25 percent of CO2
C They transport 99.5 percent of O2
D They transport about 80 percent oxygen only and the rest 20 percent of it is transported in dissolved state in blood plasma

 

Question 7

If due to some injury the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid valve of the human heart is partially non-functional, what will be the immediate effect?

A The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced
B The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down
C The pacemaker will stop working
D The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium
Question 8

The cells lining the blood vessels belong to the category of

A Columnar epithelium
B Connective tissue
C Smooth muscle tissue
D Squamous epithelium

 

Question 9

In humans, blood passes from the post caval to the diastolic right atrium of heart due to:

A Pressure difference between the post caval and atrium
B Pushing open of the venous valves
C Suction pull
D Stimulation of the sino auricular node
Question 10

The most active phagocytic white blood cells are:

A Neutrophils and monocytes
B Neutrophils and eosinophils
C Lymphocytes and macrophages
D Eosinophils and lymphocytes

 

Question 11

To obtain a standard ECG, a patient is connected to the machine with three electrodes

A One to each wrist and to the left ankle
B One to each ankle and to the left wrist
C One to each wrist and to the left chest region
D One to each ankle and to the left chest region
Question 12

The blood does not clot inside the body because of :

A Oxygenation of blood
B Movement of blood
C Heparin in blood
D Absence of fibrinogen in blood

 

Question 13

Which is the correct sequence of arrangement of types of W.B.C. in decreasing order in terms of number per mm3 of human blood?

A Eosinophils > Basophils > Neutrophils
B Basophils > Eosinophils > Neutrophils
C Neutrophils > Eosinophils > Basophils
D Eosinophils > Neutrophils > Basophils
Question 14

The blood calcium level is lowered by the deficiency of:

A Calcitonin
B Parathormone
C Thyroxine
D Both Calcitonin and Parathormone

 

Question 15

The average diameter of Red Blood Corpuscles of man is

A 7.2 μm
B 8.1 μm
C 9.2 μm
D 10.3 μm

Excretory Products and their Elimination: MCQs Quiz – 01

Question 1

_______ facilitates reabsorption of water by the nephron.

A Loop of the nephron
B Medulla
C Cortex
D Pelvis
Question 2

A Brush border is formed in

A Distal convoluted tubule
B Proximal convoluted tubule
C Bowman’s capsule
D Loop of Henle

 

Question 3

Ability of the kidneys for the production of concentrated urine is dependent on _______.

A Active transport
B Passive transport
C Countercurrent mechanism
D Diffusion
Question 4

Accumulation of urea and other waste substances in the blood is called

A Hemodialysis
B Cystitis
C Uremia
D Urethritis

 

Question 5

Bile manufactured by liver is stored within the ________.

A Urinary bladder
B Gallbladder
C Liver
D Lungs
Question 6

Certain ions and molecules, for examples H+ and penicillin are secreted from the peritubular capillary network into the _______.

A Convoluted tubules
B Peritubular capillaries
C Loops of Henle
D Collecting ducts

 

Question 7

Correct sequence of urine formation is

A Filtration, reabsorption, secretion
B Secretion, reabsorption, filtration
C Reabsorption, secretion, filtration
D Reabsorption, filtration secretion
Question 8

Creatinine the waste product closely regulated by the brain and kidneys is the end product of the metabolism of _____.

A Ammonia
B Muscle
C Nucleotide
D Anaerobic

 

Question 9

Glomerular capsule and Convoluted tubules always lie within the _______.

A Renal pelvis
B Renal medulla
C Renal cortex
D None of these
Question 10

Glomerular filtrate passes from glomerular capsule into the ______

A Loop of the nephron
B Proximal convoluted tubule
C Glomerular capsule
D Convoluted tubule

 

Question 11

If a man takes large amount of protein, he is likely to excrete more amount of

A Glucose
B Urea and uric acid
C Water
D Salts
Question 12

If a person undergoes a prolonged fasting then his urine will be found to contain higher levels of

A Ketones
B Amino acids
C Fats
D Glucose

 

Question 13

In the kidneys, osmotic pressure controls ______.

A Glucose absorption
B Sodium absorption
C Water absorption
D none of these
Question 14

Most of the reabsorption of salts and water occurs in the ______.

A Distal convoluted tubule
B Loops of Henle
C Proximal convoluted tubule
D Collecting tubule

 

Question 15

Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to kidney function regulation?

A During summer when body loses lot of water by evaporation, the release of ADH is suppressed
B When someone drinks lot of water, ADH release is suppressed
C Exposure to cold temperature stimulates ADH release
D An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates formation of Angiotensin II

Excretory Products and their Elimination: MCQs Quiz – 02

Question 1

The basic functional unit of human kidney is

A Henle’s loop
B Nephron
C Nephridia
D Pyramid
Question 2

Ornithine cycle (also known as the urea cycle) refers to the sequence of biochemical reactions taking place in the

A Urinary bladder
B Liver
C Pancreas
D Stomach

 

Question 3

The Bowman’s capsules are found in

A Cortex
B Medulla
C Convoluted tubule
D Loop of Henle
Question 4

The hollow space at the centre of kidney where urine is collected after its formation is called

A Renal pelvis
B Glomerulus
C Distal convoluted tubule
D Urethra

 

Question 5

The lungs are important organs for excretion of

A Ammonia
B Water
C Carbon dioxide
D Urea
Question 6

The main nitrogen-containing waste excreted in urine is

A Ammonia
B Creatine phosphate
C Nucleotides
D Urea

 

Question 7

The muscular tubes which take the urine from the kidneys to the bladder are

A Urinary bladders
B Ureters
C Urethras
D Nephrons
Question 8

The principal nitrogenous excretory compound in humans is synthesised

A In the liver but eliminated mostly through kidneys
B In kidneys but eliminated mostly through liver
C In kidneys as well as eliminated by kidneys
D In liver and also eliminated by the same through bile

 

Question 9

The process of dilution of urine takes place in

A Distal tubule
B Collecting tubule
C Loop of Henle
D Proximal tubule
Question 10

The renal medulla consists of cone-shaped tissue masses called _______.

A Renal pyramid
B Adipose capsule
C Renal cortex
D Renal pelvis

 

Question 11

The size of filtration slits of Glomerulus are approximately

A 10 nm
B 15 nm
C 20 nm
D 25 nm
Question 12

The term haematuria is used to describe

A Blood cancer
B Presence of Red Blood cells in Urine
C Internal bleeding
D Blood poisoning

 

Question 13

The yellow pigment derived from heme breakdown and excreted by kidneys is

A Uric acid
B Urochrome
C Cholesterol
D Melanin
Question 14

Urea is produced as an excretory substance in human body in

A Urinary bladder
B Liver
C Kidney
D Rectum

 

Question 15

Which one of the following statements in regard to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct?

A Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes
B Descending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to water
C Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing HCO3
D Nearly 99 percent of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules

Excretory Products and their Elimination: MCQs Quiz – 03

Question 1

What is reabsorbed through loop of Henle?

A Glucose
B CO2
C Potassium
D Water
Question 2

Why do we urinate more in wet and cold months?

A Kidney becomes more active
B Increase of ADH secretion
C Sweating is much reduced
D Impairment of water absorption in nephron

 

Question 3

When the infection invades the urinary bladder, it is called

A Cystitis
B Urethritis
C Pyelonephritis
D Hemodialysis
Question 4

When the infection is localized in the urethra, it is called

A Urethritis
B Cystitis
C Pyelonephritis
D Hemodialysis

 

Question 5

Which of the following hormones is involved in regulating the water-salt balance of the blood?

A Cortisone
B Aldosterone
C ADH
D ANH
Question 6

Which of the following hormones promotes the excretion of potassium ions and the reabsorption of sodium ions?

A Aldosterone
B Rennin
C ADH
D None of these

 

Question 7

Which of the following leads to the secretion of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex?

A Chymotrypsin
B Trypsin
C Renin
D None of these
Question 8

Which of the following structures facilitates easy passage of small molecules to the glomerular capsule?

A Loop of the nephron
B Peritubular capillary
C Convoluted tubule
D Glomerulus

 

Question 9

Which of the two waste products are removed from the blood in liver by Ornithine cycle?

A Urea and CO2
B Uric acid and ammonia
C Ammonia and CO2
D Urea and ammonia
Question 10

Which one of following correctly explains the function of a specific part of a human nephron?

A Afferent arteriole : Carries the blood away from the glomerulus towards renal vein
B Podocytes : Create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the Bowman’s capsule
C Henle’s loop : Most reabsorption of the major substances from the glomerular filtrate
D Distal convoluted tubule: Reabsorption of K+ ions into the surrounding blood capillaries

 

Question 11

Which one of the following is not a part of a renal pyramid?

A Loops of Henle
B Peritubular capillaries
C Convoluted tubules
D Collecting ducts
Question 12

Which one of the following secreted by posterior pituitary regulates water retention by the kidneys?

A Antidiuretic hormone
B Aldosterone
C Thyroxine
D Erythropoietin

 

Question 13

Volume of urine is regulated by

A Aldosterone
B Aldosterone and testosterone
C ADH
D Aldosterone and ADH
Question 14

One of the followings is a nonsteroid hormones secreted by the atria of the heart and helps regulate blood pressure.

A Erythropoietin
B Antidiuretic hormone
C Thyroxine
D Atrial natriuretic hormone

 

Question 15

What will happen if the stretch receptors of the urinary bladder wall are totally removed?

A There will be no micturition
B Urine will not collect in the bladder
C Micturition will continue
D Urine will continue to collect normally in the bladder

Locomotion and Movement | Movement and Support in Humans: MCQs Quiz – 1

Question 1

Which one of the following membranes secretes a watery fluid that lubricates and cushions the joint?

A Tendons
B Synovial membrane
C Ligaments
D Cartilage
Question 2

Which one of the following items gives its correct total number?

A Cervical vertebrae in humans – 8
B Floating ribs in humans – 4
C Amino acids found in proteins – 16
D Types of diabetes – 3

 

Question 3

Which one of the following is an example of an imperfect joint?

A Elbow joint
B Pubic symphysis
C Suture
D Ball and socket joint
Question 4

Which one of the following is a sesamoid bone?

A Pectoral girdle
B Pterygoid
C Pelvis
D Patella

 

Question 5

Which one of the following bones is the only movable portion of the skull?

A Maxilla
B Mandible
C Frontal bone
D Zygomatic bone
Question 6

Which of these is the contractile protein of a muscle?

A Tubulin
B Tropomyosin
C Myosin
D All of these

 

Question 7

The expanded portions of the ______ are calcium storage sites.

A Sarcoplasmic reticulum
B Sarcoplasm
C Neuromuscular junctions
D Myofibril
Question 8

Which of the following muscles draw the lower jaw, tongue and the head backward?

A Abductor
B Retractor
C Proctor
D All of these

 

Question 9

Which one of the following pairs is wrong about cardiac muscles?

A Location – only in the heart
B Function – Pumping of blood
C Gap junctions – No
D Striated – Yes
Question 10

Which of the following is striped muscle but not voluntary?

A Wrist muscles
B Shank
C Cardiac muscles
D Abdominal

 

Question 11

Which one of the following is correct pairing of a body part and the kind of muscle tissue that moves it?

A Iris – Involuntary smooth muscle
B Heart wall – Involuntary unstriated muscle
C Biceps of upper arm – Smooth muscle fibres
D Abdominal wall – Smooth muscle
Question 12

Which of the following is a skull bone?

A Pterygoid
B Arytenoid
C Cricoid
D None of these

 

Question 13

Which one of the following is the correct matching of three items and their grouping category?

Items Group
Cytosine, uracil, thiamine Pyrimidines
Malleus, incus, cochlea Ear ossicles
Ilium, ischium, pubis Coxal bones of pelvic girdle
Actin, myosin, rhodopsin Muscle proteins
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
Question 14

Which of the following bones make up the structure of the hand?

A Metacarpal
B Tarsal
C Carpal
D Phalanges

 

Question 15

Which muscle is adapted to be highly resistant to fatigue?

A Cardiac
B Striped
C Unstriped
D Voluntary

Locomotion and Movement | Movement and Support in Humans: MCQs Quiz – 2

Question 1

______ connect the ends of bones together.

A Ligaments
B Tendons
C Muscles
D cartilages
Question 2

Which kind of joint (the sutures of the cranium) is essentially immovable?

A Cartilaginous joint
B Fibrous joint
C Hinge joint
D Ball and socket joint

 

Question 3

Which joint occurs between humerus and radioulna?

A Ball and socket joint
B Sliding
C Pivot
D Hinge joint
Question 4

Which of the following is a wrist bone?

A Pubis
B Ulna
C Carpal
D Femur

 

Question 5

Which is the largest synovial joint of the human body?

A Knee joint
B Shoulder joint
C Elbow joint
D Hip joint
Question 6

Ilium, ischium, and pubis join at the ______ to form coxal bone.

A Acetabulum
B Ilium
C Sternum
D Glenoid cavity

 

Question 7

Which is a part of pectoral girdle?

A Acetabulum
B Ilium
C Sternum
D Glenoid cavity
Question 8

What is the ion necessary for muscle contraction?

A Cl
B Ca
C Na
D K

 

Question 9

Where is the Ball and socket joint found?

A Shoulder
B Atlas and Axis
C Atlas and Head
D Knee
Question 10

When bone becomes hard, the osteocytes are trapped in hollow chambers called

A Osteoblasts and osteoclasts
B Red bone marrow
C Cartilage
D Lacunae

 

Question 11

Voluntary muscular coordination is under control of

A Cerebellum
B Cerebral hemisphere
C Cerebrum
D Medulla oblongata.
Question 12

Vertebral column extends from the skull to

A Pectoral girdle
B Pelvis
C Frontal bone
D Phalanges

 

Question 13

Which molecule provides ATP during muscle contraction?

A Creatine phosphate
B Hemoglobin
C Myoglobin
D Myosin
Question 14

Total number of bones in the hind limb is

A 30
B 15
C 20
D 24

 

Question 15

Three of the following pairs of the human skeletal parts are correctly matched with their respective inclusive skeletal category and one pair is not matched. Identify the non-matching pair.

  Pairs of skeletal parts Category
(1) Humerus and ulna Appendicular skeleton
(2) Malleus and stapes Ear ossicles
(3) Sternum and Ribs Axial skeleton
(4) Clavicle and Glenoid cavity Pelvic girdle
A 1  
B 2  
C 3  
D 4  

Locomotion and Movement | Movement and Support in Humans: MCQs Quiz – 3

Question 1

How many bones are there in the axial part of a human skeleton?

A 180
B 120
C 210
D 80
Question 2

In a new born baby, the flat bones in its skull are separated by large spaces filled with fibrous connective tissue. These soft spots are called

A Fontanels
B Chitin
C Bursae
D Menisci

 

Question 3

The total number of bones in human skull are

A 30
B 29
C 25
D 106
Question 4

The segment of a myofibril between two Z-lines is called

A Sarcomere
B Sarcoplasm
C Sarcolemma
D Sarconema

 

Question 5

There are ______ of ribs in human body.

A 20 pairs
B 10 pairs
C 12 pairs
D 8 pairs
Question 6

The number of ‘floating ribs’ in human body is

A 2 pairs
B 3 pairs
C 5 pairs
D 6 pairs

 

Question 7

The Junction between a nerve cell and the motor unit is called

A Creatine phosphate
B Synapse
C Neuromuscular junction
D Sarcomeres
Question 8

What joint is found between the ribs and sternum?

A Cartilaginous
B Hinge
C Angular
D Fibrous

 

Question 9

The joint between the atlas and axis is

A Ball and socket
B Saddle
C Pivot
D Angular
Question 10

The elements associated with muscle contraction are

A Mg and Ca
B Mg and Cl
C Na and Ca
D Ca and K

 

Question 11

The clavicle articulates with _________ of scapula.

A Acromion process
B Glenoid cavity
C Acetabulum cavity
D Ball and socket joint
Question 12

The bones that attach the arm to the axial skeleton (composed of the clavicle and scapula) is called

A Cranium
B Pelvic girdle
C Pectoral girdle
D Scapula

 

Question 13

The bone-forming cells that secrete the organic matrix of bone and promote the deposition of calcium salts into the matrix are

A Osteoclasts
B Osteoblasts
C Osteocyte
D Chondroblasts
Question 14

Tendons connect ______ at a joint.

A Bone to bone
B Muscle to muscle
C Muscle to bone
D Muscle to blood vessel

 

Question 15

Synovial joints occur between

A Tail vertebrae
B Humerus and ulna
C Two skull bones
D Two vertebrae

Locomotion and Movement | Movement and Support in Humans: MCQs Quiz – 4

Question 1

Synovial joint is

A Pivot joint
B Ball and socket joint
C Hinge joint
D All of these
Question 2

Which of the following gives off synovial fluid as a lubricant?

A Cartilage
B Synovial membrane
C Bones
D All of these

 

Question 3

Suspensory ligament is present in

A Eye
B Brain
C Ear
D Kidney
Question 4

Surface for attachment of tongue is

A Palatine
B Pterygoid
C Sphenoid
D Hyoid apparatus

 

Question 5

Source of energy in muscle contraction is

A ATP
B GTP
C ADP
D Creatine phosphate
Question 6

Which of the following is the smallest muscle in human body?

A Sartorius
B Stapedius
C Stapes
D Mandibular

 

Question 7

A sarcomere extends between two dark vertical lines called ______.

A I band
B Z line
C Myofilament
D None of these
Question 8

Ribs are connected to ______ .

A Clavicle
B Sternum
C Scapula
D Ilium

 

Question 9

Which protein is present in cartilage?

A Chondrin
B Collagen
C Ossein
D None of these
Question 10

Origin of striated muscle is form which germ layer of embryo:

A Ectoderm
B Endoderm
C Mesoderm
D All of these

 

Question 11

Which one of the skull bones is movable?

A Vomer
B Maxillary
C Mandible
D All of these
Question 12

One of the following is true of muscle contraction.

A H-zone expands
B I-band expands
C A-Band remains constant
D The sarcomeres expands

 

Question 13

Which one of the following is referred as either fingers or toes?

A Tarsals
B Digits
C Metacarpals
D Carpals
Question 14

One of the following is not a biological function of skeleton?

A Support
B Storage
C Excretion
D Movement

 

Question 15

In a synovial joint, the two bones are fastened together and stabilized by ______.

A Menisci
B Ligaments
C Tendons
D Synovia

Locomotion and Movement | Movement and Support in Humans: MCQs Quiz – 5

Question 1

One of the following bones lies in front of the sphenoid and helps forming the orbits and the nasal septum.

A Zygotmatic bone
B Lacrimal bone
C Occipital bone
D Ethmoid bone
Question 2

Number of vertebrae in human skeleton is

A 33
B 38
C 40
D 45

 

Question 3

Name the joints between the ribs and sternum and the pubic symphysis that tend to be slightly movable.

A Cartilaginous joints
B Fibrous joints
C Hinge joints
D Ball and socket joints
Question 4

Myoglobin occurs in

A Cardiac muscle fibres
B White muscle fibres
C Red muscle fibre
D both (A) and (B)

 

Question 5

Muscular and nervous excitability is lowered by which of the following?

A Na
B Mg
C Ca
D K
Question 6

Low Ca++ in the body fluid may be the cause of

A Gout
B Tetany
C Anaemia
D Angina pectoris

 

Question 7

Largest bone in human body is

A Ulna
B Femur
C Humerus
D Tibia
Question 8

Joint between femur and acetabulum is called

A Pivot
B Sliding
C Ball and socket joint
D Hinge joint

 

Question 9

Joint between bones of human skull is

A Hinge joint
B Cartilaginous joint
C Synovial joint
D Fibrous joint
Question 10

Ions that must be present for binding the cross bridges is

A K+
B Na+
C Ca+
D None of these

 

Question 11

Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system:

A Myasthenia gravis – Auto immune disorders which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments
B Gout – inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of calcium
C Muscular dystrophy – age related shortening of muscles
D Osteoporosis – decrease in bone mass and higher chances of fractures with advancing age
Question 12

Hinge joint occurs between

A Humerus and pectoral girdle
B Femur and pelvic girdle
C Humerus and radioulnar
D Skull and atlas

 

Question 13

Glenoid cavity is present in

A Xiphisternum
B Pectoral girdle
C Pelvic girdle
D Cartilage
Question 14

Functional unit of striated muscle is

A I band
B Myofilament
C Z line
D Sarcomere

 

Question 15

Floating ribs in human body are

A 2 pairs
B 3 pairs
C 4 pairs
D 5 pairs

Locomotion and Movement | Movement and Support in Humans: MCQs Quiz – 6

Question 1

Fabella are the sesamoid bones associated with

A Elbow joint
B Wrist joint
C Knee joint
D Neck joint
Question 2

Elbow joint is an example of

A Ball and socket joint
B Pivot joint
C Hinge joint
D Gliding joint

 

Question 3

Cori’s cycle operates in

A Cartilage
B Muscle
C Liver
D Liver and muscle
Question 4

Bones formed by ossification of a tendon is called

A Dermal bone
B Sesamoid bone
C Membrane bone
D Cartilage

 

Question 5

Autorhythmicity is a special property of the muscles of the

A Heart
B Intestine
C Liver
D Kidney
Question 6

ATPase enzyme essential for muscle contraction is found in

A Actinin
B Myosin
C Troponin
D Actin

 

Question 7

Astragalus and calcaneus occur in

A Shoulder
B Forelimb
C Hip
D Hindlimb
Question 8

Ankle joint is

A Gliding joint
B Hinge joint
C Ball and socket joint
D Pivot joint

 

Question 9

A sprain is due to stretched or torn ______.

A Nerves
B Muscles
C Ligaments
D Tendons
Question 10

Acromion process is found in

A Pectoral girdle
B Humerus
C Pelvic girdle
D None of these

 

Question 11

Acetabulum is present in ______ joint.

A Shoulder
B Elbow
C Hip
D Knee
Question 12

One of the following is a vertebrate bone and directly develops from mesenchyme.

A Dermal bone
B Endochondral bone
C Replacing bone
D None of these

 

Question 13

A skeletal muscle which decreases the angle between two bones and bends a joint is

A Flexor
B Abductor
C Extensor
D Adductor
Question 14

______ acts as a shock absorber to cushion when tibia and femur come together.

A Tendon
B Cartilage
C Ligament
D Disc

 

Question 15

Zygomatic bones are found in

A Skull
B Pectoral girdle
C Pelvic girdle
D Sternum

Locomotion and Movement | Movement and Support in Humans: MCQs Quiz – 7

Question 1

Secretion of osteoid by osteoblasts forms ______.

A Marrow
B Cartilage
C Matrix
D Canaliculi
Question 2

The supportive skeletal structures in the human external ears and in the nose tip are examples of ______.

A Ligament
B Areolar tissue
C Bone
D Cartilage

 

Question 3

The two protein molecules, closely associated with actin filaments are ______ and ______.

A actin and myosin
B actin and tropomyosin
C troponin and tropomyosin
D tubulin and tropomyosin
Question 4

Cells and their functions are matched below. Which is the correct option?

A Osteoblasts – bone-forming cells
B Osteoclasts – bone-absorbing cells
C Osteocytes – Cartilage-forming cells
D Both (A) and (B) are correct

 

Question 5

Thoracic cage of man is formed of

A Ribs, sternum and thoracic vertebrae
B Ribs and thoracic vertebrae
C Ribs, sternum and lumbar vertebrae
D Ribs and sternum
Question 6

The type of muscles present in our

A Thigh are striated and voluntary
B Upper arm are smooth muscle fibres fusiform in shape
C Heart are involuntary and unstriated smooth muscles
D Intestine are striated and involuntary

 

Question 7

Which one of the following statement is true about spongy bone?

A Unorganized appearance
B Lighter than compact bone
C Surrounds the bone marrow cavity
D All of these are correct
Question 8

Motor neurons electrically stimulate nearby muscle fibers at ______.

A Creatine phosphate
B Actin filament
C Neuromuscular junction
D Cross-bridges

 

Question 9

Chemical ions responsible for muscle contraction are

A Na+ and Ca2+
B Na+ and K+
C Ca2+ and K+
D Ca2+ and Mg2+
Question 10

Assertion: Knee joint is the hinge type of joint. Reason: Femur, patella and fibula are associated with knee joint.

A Assertion and Reason both are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
B Assertion and Reason both are correct but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion
C Assertion is correct but Reason is wrong
D Assertion is wrong but Reason is correct

 

Question 11

In hurdle race, what is the major energy source of the leg muscle?

A Performed ATP
B Glycolysis
C Pyruvate and lactate
D Oxidative metabolism
Question 12

Which one of the followings stands incorrect regarding skeletal muscle?

A Responsible for voluntary movement
B Contract and expand slowly
C Cell fibers have multiple nuclei
D Stimulated by central nervous system

 

Question 13

Yellow bone marrow, in the medullary cavity of the diaphysis is primarily ______.

A Collagen fibers, made of protein
B Bone-forming and bone-absorbing cells
C Fat that can be utilized for energy
D None of these
Question 14

Statements about the mechanism of muscle contraction are given below:

  1. Acetylcholine is released when the neural signal reaches the motor end plate.
  2. Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by CNS via a sensory neuron.

III. During muscle contraction isotropic band gets elongated.

  1. Repeated activation of the muscles can lead to lactic acid accumulation.

Identify the correct statements.

A I and IV are correct
B I and III are correct
C II and III are correct
D I, Il and III are correct

 

Question 15

Match the following and choose the correct option.

Type Synovial Joint Bone Involved
a. Ball and socket 1. Carpal and metacarpal of thumb
b. Hinge 2. Atlas and axis
c. Pivot 3. Frontal and parietal
d. Saddle 4. Knee
  5. Humerus and pectoral girdle
A a – 5, b – 4, c – 2, d – 1
B a – 1, b – 3, c – 4, d – 5
C a – 5, b – 4, c – 3, d – 1
D a – 1, b – 2, c – 5, d – 4

Human Endocrine System: MCQs Quiz – 1

Question 1

Concentration of the urine is controlled by ______

A MSH
B ADH
C Oxytocin
D ACTH
Question 2

Damage to thymus in children may lead to

A Loss of antibody mediated immunity
B Reduction in stem cell production
C Reduction of hemoglobin content of blood
D Loss of cell-mediated immunity

 

Question 3

ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to release a group of hormones called ______.

A Mineralocorticoid
B Glucocorticoid
C Endorphins
D Glucagon
Question 4

Adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce ______.

A Epinephrine
B Aldosterone
C Cortisol
D Testosterone

 

Question 5

An enlarged thyroid is the result of ______ deficiency.

A Calcium
B Iodine
C Iron
D Phosphorus
Question 6

Anabolic steroids are ______ versions of testosterone.

A Effective
B Synthetic
C Natural
D Ineffective

 

Question 7

The hormone known to participate in metabolism of calcium and phosphorus is

A Mineralocorticoids
B Calcitonin
C Glucagon
D Glucocorticoids
Question 8

Chemical signals released by an organism that influence the behavior of other individuals of the same species are called ______.

A Pheromone
B Insulin
C Androgen
D Steroid

 

Question 9

Deficiency of adrenal cortex hormones results in

A Tetany
B Acromegaly
C Addison disease
D Cretinism
Question 10

During growth period release of too much growth hormone can lead to

A Cretinism
B Acromegaly
C Gigantism
D Simmond’s disease

 

Question 11

Endemic goitre is a state of

A Increased thyroid function
B Normal thyroid function
C Decreased thyroid function
D Moderate thyroid function
Question 12

Glucagon hormone is secreted by the ______.

A Thyroid gland
B Adrenal gland
C Pituitary gland
D Pancreas

 

Question 13

Hormone responsible for the secretion of milk after parturition

A ICSH
B Prolactin
C ACTH
D LH
Question 14

In addition to thyroxine (T4), triiodothyronine (T3), thyroid gland produces ______

A Thyroid-stimulating hormone
B Adrenocorticotropic hormone
C Calcitonin
D Gonadotropic hormones

 

Question 15

Given below is an incomplete table about certain hormones, their source glands and one major effect of each on the body in humans. Identify the correct option for the three blanks A, B and C

GLANDS SECRETION EFFECT ON BODY
A Oestrogen Maintenance of secondary
sexual characters
Alpha cells of Islets of
Langerhans
B Raises blood sugar level
Anterior pituitary C Over secretion leads to gigantism

 

  A B C
(1) Placenta Glucagon Calcitonin
(2) Ovary Glucagon Growth hormone
(3) Placenta Insulin Vasopressin
(4) Ovary Insulin Calcitonin
A 1  
B 2  
C 3  
D 4  

Human Endocrine System: MCQs Quiz – 2

Question 1

Which one of the followings are male sex hormones?

A Insulins
B Aldosterones
C Androgens
D Pheromones
Question 2

In adults, insufficient thyroxine can lead to ______.

A Goiter
B Tetany
C Cretinism
D Myxedema

 

Question 3

In children, hypothyroidism (underactive thyroid gland) can lead to ______

A Goiter
B Acromegaly
C Cretinism
D Myxedema
Question 4

In Male the sex hormone that maintains sexual organs and secondary sex characteristics is

A Progesterone
B Estrogen
C Testosterone
D Relaxin

 

Question 5

In the body, both the blood sodium and potassium levels are regulated by _______.

A Pheromones
B Aldosterone
C Cortisol
D Androgens
Question 6

In which of the following pairs, the hormone of endocrine glands and its primary action is mismatched.

A Calcitonin – Lower blood calcium levels
B Parathyroid – Raises blood calcium levels
C Somatostatin – Inhibits release of glucagon
D Melatonin – Regulates the rate of cellular metabolism

 

Question 7

Islets of Langerhans are found in

A Anterior Pituitary
B Kidney Cortex
C Spleen
D Endocrine pancreas
Question 8

Name the condition when the concentration of Ketone body increases in urine

A Acromegaly
B Diabetes mellitus
C Diabetes insipidus
D Cushing’s disease

 

Question 9

Pituitary gland known as the ‘master’ endocrine gland is under the control of

A Pineal gland
B Adrenal gland
C Hypothalamus
D Thyroid gland
Question 10

Somatostatin

A Stimulates glucagon release while inhibits insulin release
B Stimulates release of insulin and glucagon
C Inhibits release of insulin and glucagon
D Inhibits glucagon release while stimulates insulin release

 

Question 11

cells of pancreas isd and aThe chemical nature of hormones secreted by

A Glycolipid
B Glycoprotein
C Steroid
D Polypeptide
Question 12

The endocrine gland which contributes to setting the body’s biological clock is the ______.

A Pituitary gland
B Thymus gland
C Pineal gland
D Thyroid gland

 

Question 13

In human adult females oxytocin

A Causes strong uterine contractions during parturition
B Is secreted by anterior pituitary
C Stimulates growth of mammary glands
D Stimulates pituitary to secrete vasopressin
Question 14

Match the source gland with its respective hormone as well as the function

  Source gland Hormone Function
(1) Thyroid Thyroxine Regulates blood
calcium level
(2) Anterior
pituitary
Oxytocin Contraction of uterus
muscles during child
birth
(3) Posterior
pituitary
Vasopressin Stimulates resorption
of water in the distal
tubules in the
nephron
(4) Corpus
luteum
Estrogen Supports pregnancy
A 1  
B 2  
C 3  
D 4  

 

Question 15

The specific region of Hypothalamus, responsible for physiological sweat secretion, is

A Para-ventricular nucleus
B Supra-Optic nucleus
C Median Eminence
D Pars Distalis

Human Endocrine System: MCQs Quiz – 3

Question 1

The adrenal cortex produces ______.

A Adrenaline
B Calcitonin
C Epinephrine
D Aldosterone
Question 2

The primary androgen produced by males is ______.

A Epinephrine
B Aldosterone
C Cortisol
D Testosterone

 

Question 3

Which of the following hormone is chemically glycoprotein?

A Growth hormone
B Prolactin
C Erythropoietin
D Estrogen
Question 4

The hormone responsible for “Fight and Flight” response is

A Adrenalin
B Thyroxine
C ADH
D Oxytocin

 

Question 5

Which of the following hormones synchronizes circadian rhythms and may be involved in onset of puberty?

A Thymopoietin
B Thymosin
C Melatonin
D Parathyroid
Question 6

Which of the following is the function of Adrenaline?

A Helps in gastric juice secretion
B Increases heart rate and blood pressure
C Increases blood calcium
D Helps in milk secretion

 

Question 7

Which of the hormone(s) has effects on the stomach, pancreas, and gallbladder?

A Secretin
B Cholecystokinin
C Gastrin
D All of the above
Question 8

Which one of the following condition is resulted from excess GH in adults?

A Cushing’s disease
B Acromegaly
C Hyperthyroidism
D Diabetes mellitus

 

Question 9

Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

A Insulin – Diabetes mellitus (disease)
B Glucagon – Beta cells (source)
C Somatostatin – Delta cells (source)
D Corpus luteum – Relaxin (secretion)
Question 10

Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?

A Antidiuretic hormone – Kidneys
B Luteinizing hormone – Mammary glands
C Prolactin – Mammary glands
D Adrenocorticotropic hormone – Adrenal cortex

 

Question 11

Which one of the following pairs of organs includes only the endocrine glands?

A Adrenal and Ovary
B Parathyroid and Adrenal
C Pancreas and Parathyroid
D Thymus and Testes
Question 12

Which one of the followings is the primary target organ of aldosterone?

A Kidney
B Pancreas
C Liver
D Both (B) and (C)

 

Question 13

The nerve centres which control the body temperature and the urge for eating are contained in

A Thalamus
B Hypothalamus
C Pons
D Cerebellum
Question 14

Which part of human brain is concerned with the regulation of body temperature?

A Hypothalamus
B Medulla oblongata
C Cerebellum
D Cerebrum

 

Question 15

Which one of the following is the correct matching of the events occurring during menstrual cycle?

A Menstruation : breakdown of myometrium and ovum not fertilised
B Ovulation : LH and FSH attain peak level and sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone
C Proliferative phase : Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of Graafian follicle
D Development of corpus luteum : Secretory phase and increased secretion of progesterone

Nervous system in humans: Neural Control and Coordination – MCQs Quiz – 1

Question 1

Neuroglial cells support and protect ______.

A Muscle cells
B Glands
C Neurons
D Nephrons
Question 2

______ is an abundant inhibitory neurotransmitter in CNS.

A Adrenaline
B Acetylcholine
C GABA
D Noradrenaline

 

Question 3

How many laminae are present in the grey matter of spinal cord?

A Four
B Six
C Eight
D Ten
Question 4

Hypothalamus and thalamus are in ______.

A Cerebellum
B Cerebrum
C Limbic system
D Diencephalon

 

Question 5

Which one of the followings is the function of parasympathetic nervous system?

A Stimulates oil and sweat glands in the skin
B Pupil constriction
C Acceleration of heart beat
D Contraction of hair muscles
Question 6

A short Gap in the myelin sheath around a nerve fiber is called ______.

A Dendrite
B Axon terminal
C Node of Ranvier
D None of these

 

Question 7

At a neuromuscular junction, synaptic vesicles discharge ______.

A Acetylcholine
B Epinephrine
C Adrenaline
D None of these
Question 8

Broca’s area in the left hemisphere is related to ______.

A Receiving the impulses from eyes
B Speech
C Learning and reasoning
D Sensation of smell

 

Question 9

Cocaine as a stimulant of the CNS interferes with the reuptake of ______ at synapses.

A Acetylcholine
B Dopamine
C Oxygen
D Epinephrine
Question 10

Functions of smooth muscles, cardiac muscles, organs, and glands are regulated by ______ system.

A Parasympathetic
B Sympathetic
C Central nervous
D Autonomic

 

Question 11

In the PNS, the neuroglial cells that form protective myelin sheaths are ______.

A Microglia
B Ganglionic cells
C Oligodendrocytes
D Schwann cells
Question 12

Molecules of neurotransmitter, released from the presynaptic neuron bind to receptors on the ______.

A Postsynaptic membrane
B Cell body
C Axonal membrane
D None of these

 

Question 13

Comprehension of spoken and written words take place in the region of

A Association Area
B Motor Area
C Wernicke’s Area
D Broca’s Area
Question 14

One of the followings is a naturally occurring compound which reduces the sensation of pain and generates feelings of well-being?

A Acetylcholine
B Dopamine
C Endorphin
D Epinephrine

 

Question 15

During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the action potential results from the movement of

A Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
B K+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
C Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
D K+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid

Nervous system in humans: Neural Control and Coordination – MCQs Quiz – 2

Question 1

There are ______ pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain.

A 8
B 12
C 18
D 25
Question 2

Recording of the electrical activity associated with the heartbeat is called ______.

A Oscilloscope
B Electrocardiogram
C Stethoscope
D Laparoscope

 

Question 3

Preganglionic neurons lie within the ______.

A Parasympathetic nervous system
B Sympathetic nervous system
C Peripheral nervous system
D Central nervous system
Question 4

Skeletal muscles are controlled by ______.

A Sympathetic nerves
B Parasympathetic nerves
C Somatic nerves
D Autonomic nerves

 

Question 5

Spinal cord and brain are wrapped in protective membranes known as ______.

A Axomembranes
B Meninges
C Nodes of Ranvier
D Myelin sheath
Question 6

The basic cyclic pattern of inspiration and expiration are established by a respiratory center within the ______.

A Cerebellum
B Medulla oblongata
C Cerebral cortex
D Thalamus

 

Question 7

Which portion of the brain is responsible for various emotions such as pleasure, fear, and happiness?

A Thalamus
B Reticular formation
C Hypothalamus
D Limbic system
Question 8

The difference in charge between inside and outside environment (change in voltage) of the nerve cell membrane is measured by ______.

A Oscilloscope
B Electrocardiogram
C Stethoscope
D Laparoscope

 

Question 9

The difference in voltage between the inside and outside of a cell is called ______.

A Spike potential
B Action potential
C Resting potential
D Reaction potential
Question 10

The generation of excitation-contraction coupling involves all the following events except

A Generation of end-plate potential
B Release of calcium from troponin
C Formation of cross-linkages between actin and myosin
D Hydrolysis of ATP to ADP

 

Question 11

The protein carrier in the membrane, called “sodium-potassium pump” pumps ______

A Both Na+ and K+ in
B Both Na+ and K+ out
C Na+ in and K+ out
D Na+ out and K+ in
Question 12

The thin and convoluted outer layer of gray matter that covers the cerebral hemispheres is

A Medulla oblongata
B Thalamus
C Cerebral cortex
D Meninges

 

Question 13

When a neuron is in resting state i.e. not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is

A Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions
B Comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions and nearly impermeable to K+ ions
C Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
D Impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
Question 14

When sympathetic nervous system is activated it causes the secretion of

A Adrenaline which inhibits the organ
B Acetylcholine which stimulates the organ
C Adrenaline which stimulates the organ
D Acetylcholine which inhibits the organ

 

Question 15

Select the correct statement from the ones given below

A Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery
B Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth
C Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain killer
D Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate

Nervous system in humans: Neural Control and Coordination – MCQs Quiz – 3

Question 1

Which one of the followings is the largest portion of the brain in humans?

A Cerebrum
B Cerebellum
C Medulla
D Pons
Question 2

Which neuroglia cells produce a fatty insulating material called myelin?

A Satellite cells
B Schwann cells
C Both (A) and (B)
D Neither (A) nor (B)

 

Question 3

During synaptic transmission of nerve impulse, neurotransmitter (P) is released from synaptic vesicles by the action of ions (Q). Choose the correct P and Q.

A P = Acetylcholine, Q = Ca++
B P = Acetylcholine, Q = Na+
C P = GABA, Q=Na+
D P = Cholinesterase, Q = Ca++
Question 4

Which of the following does not act as a neurotransmitter?

A Acetylcholine
B Glutamic acid
C Epinephrine
D Tyrosine

 

Question 5

Which one of the followings is responsible for the improvement of nutrient flow to the neurons and provides electrical insulation?

A Neuroglia
B Motor neuron
C Sensory neuron
D Interneuron
Question 6

Which of the following is not related to the autonomic nervous system?

A Peristalsis
B Digestion
C Excretion
D Memory and learning

 

Question 7

Which of the following options is appropriate for the processing center “Wernicke’s area” found in left cerebral cortex?

A Helps us to understand both written and spoken word
B Adds grammatical refinements
C Sends information to Broca’s area
D Both (A) and (C)
Question 8

Which of the following nerves is the largest of all the cranial nerves?

A Abducens nerve
B Oculomotor nerve
C Olfactory nerve
D Trigeminal nerve

 

Question 9

Which one of the following cranial nerves is carrying the nerve fibres originating from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus?

A Oculomotor
B Trochlear
C Abducens
D Vagus
Question 10

Which one of the common neurotransmitters is paired wrongly with the site where it is released?

A Somatostatin – pancreas
B Serotonin – spinal cord
C Acetylcholine – Neuromuscular junctions
D Endorphins – autonomic nervous system

 

Question 11

Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?

A Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary euphoria
B Hashish causes after thought perceptions and hallucinations
C Opium stimulates nervous system and causes hallucinations
D Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed emotions
Question 12

Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched in regard to the principal actions of neurotransmitters?

A Endorphins – involved in moods
B Serotonin – involved in sleep cycle
C Norepinephrine – plays a role in emotions
D Somatostatin – inhibits pancreatic release of growth hormone

 

Question 13

Which one of the followings is correct in regard to the function of cerebellum?

A Regulate heartbeat
B Muscle coordination
C Secretes melatonin
D Sense reception
Question 14

Which one of the followings is not correct about neuroglial cells?

A Generate or transmit impulses
B Maintain healthy concentrations of important chemicals in the fluid
C Provide physical support and protection to neurons
D In PNS, responsible for myelination (Schwann cells)

 

Question 15

Which one of the following aspects is an exclusive characteristic of living things?

A Perception of events happening in the environment and their memory
B Increase in mass by accumulation of material both on surface as well as internally
C Isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro
D Increase in mass from inside only

Nervous system in humans: Neural Control and Coordination – MCQs Quiz – 4

Question 1

Given below is a diagrammatic cross section of a single loop of human cochlea: Which one of the following options correctly represents the names of three different parts?

A A: Perilymph, B: Tectorial membrane C: Endolymph
B B: Tectorial membrane, C: Perilymph, D: Secretory cells
C C: Endolymph, D : Sensory hair cells, A: Serum
D D: Sensory hair cells, A: Endolymph B: Tectorial membrane
Question 2

Examine the diagram of the two cell types A and B given below and select the correct option.

A Cell-A is the rod cell found evenly all over retina
B Cell-A is the cone cell more concentrated in the fovea centralis
C Cell-B is concerned with colour vision in bright light
D Cell-A is sensitive to low light intensities

 

Question 3

Which one of the following is the correct difference between Rod Cells and Cone Cells of our retina?

(1) Distribution More concentrated in centre of retina Evenly distributed all over retina
(2) Visual acuity High Low
(3) Visual pigment contained Iodopsin Rhodopsin
(4) Overall function Vision in poor light Colour vision and detailed vision in bright light
A (1)  
B (2)  
C (3)  
D (4)  
Question 4  

An action potential in the nerve fibre is produced when positive and negative charges on outside and the inside of the axon membrane are reversed because

A all potassium ions leave the axon
B more potassium ions enter the axon as compared to sodium ions leaving it
C more sodium ions enter the axon as compared to potassium ions leaving it
D all sodium ions enter the axon

 

Question 5

The cutaneous plexus and the papillary plexus consist of

A Specialized cells for cutaneous sensations
B A network of arteries to provide dermal supply
C A network of nerves to provide dermal sensation
D Gland cells that release cutaneous secretions
Question 6

Which one of the following pairs of structures distinguishes a nerve cell from other types of cell?

A Perikaryon and dendrites
B Vacuoles and fibres
C Flagellum and medullary sheath
D Nucleus and mitochondria

 

Question 7

Which one of the following is an example of negative feedback loop in humans?

A Constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal muscles when it is too cold
B Secretion of tears after falling of sand particles into the eyes
C Salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious food
D Secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is too hot
Question 8

During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?

A First positive, then negative and continue to be negative
B First negative, then positive and again back to negative
C First positive, then negative and again back to positive
D First negative, then positive and continue to be positive.

 

Question 9

Given below is a table comparing the effects of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system for four features (a-d). Which one feature is correctly described?

Feature Sympathetic Nervous System Parasympathetic Nervous System
(a) Salivary gland Stimulates secretion Inhibits secretion
(b) Pupil of the eye Dilates Constricts
(c) Heart rate Decreases Increases
(d) Intestinal peristalsis Stimulates Inhibits
A (a)  
B (b)  
C (c)  
D (d)  
Question 10  

Patients suffering from cholera are given a saline drip because

A NaCl is an important component of energy supply
B NaCl furnishes most of the fuel required for cellular activity
C Na+ ions help in stopping nerve impulses and hence, sensation of pain
D Na+ ions help in the retention of water in the body tissues

 

Question 11

Unidirectional transmission of a nerve impulse through nerve fibre is due to the fact that:

A nerve fibre is insulated by a medullary sheath
B sodium pump starts operating only at the cyton and then continues into the nerve fibre
C neurotransmitters are released by dendrites and not by axon endings
D neurotransmitters are released by the axon endings and not by dendrites
Question 12

Assertion: The imbalance in concentration of Na+, K+ and proteins generates resting potential. Reason: To maintain the unequal distribution of Na+ and K+, the neurons use electrical energy.

A Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
B Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanations of Assertion.
C Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
D Both Assertion and Reason are false.

 

Question 13

If vagus nerve in man is damaged, which of the following will not be affected?

A pancreatic secretion
B gastrointestinal movements
C tongue movements
D cardiac movements
Question 14

The function of vagus nerve innervating the heart is to

A Initiate the heart beat
B Reduce the heart beat
C Accelerate the heart beat
D Maintain constant heart beat

 

Question 15

Cornea transplant in humans is almost never rejected. This is because:

A It is a non-living layer
B Its cells are least penetrable by bacteria
C It has no blood supply
D It is composed of enucleated cells

 

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