Your Cart

NEET Practice Test Paper 2 Zoology by TEACHING CARE online tuition and coaching classes

NEET Practice Test Paper 2 Zoology by TEACHING CARE online tuition and coaching classes.

 

1.  Organization of stem apex into corpus and tunica is determined mainly by

(a) planes of cell division

(b) regions of meristematic activity

(c) rare of cell growth

(d) rate of shoot tip growth

 

2.  Sieve tubes are suited for translocation of food because they possess

(a) bordered pits

(b) no ends walls

(c) broader lumen and perforated cross walls

(d) no protoplasm

 

3.  Death of protoplasm is a pre-requisite for a vital function like

(a) transport of sap         (b) transport of food

(c) absorption of water   (d)  gaseous exchange

 

4.  Out of diffuse porous and ring porous woods, which is correct?

(a) Ring porous wood, carries move water for short period

(b) Diffuse porous wood carries more water

(c) Ring porous wood carries more water when need is higher

(d) Diffuse porous wood is less specialized but conducts water rapidly through out

 

5.  What is true about all sponges without exception?

(a) They are all marine

(b) They have flagellated collar cells

(c) They have a mixed skeleton  consisting of spicules and spongin fibres

(d) They reproduce only asexually by  budding

 

6.  Functionwise, just as there are nephridia in an earthworm, so are

(a) parotid glands in toad  (b) statocysts in prawn

(c) flame cells in liver fluke  (d) myotomes in fish

 

7.  What is common among silver fish, scorpion, crab and honeybee?

(a) Compound eyes   (b) Poison glands

(c) Jointed appendages  (d) Metamorphosis

 

 

 

8.  In desert grasslands, which type of animals are relatively more  abundant?

(a) Diurnal    (b) Arboreal

(c) Aquatic    (d) Fossorial

 

9.  The long bones are hollow and connected by air passage. They are the   characteristics of

(a) Aves    (b) mammals

(c) Reptilia  (d) land vertebrates

 

10.  Most appropriate term to describe  the life cycle of Obelia is

(a) neoteny                 (b) metagenesis

(c) metamorphosis     (d) All of these

 

11.  The term aquaculture means

(a) aspergillosis          (b) inland fisheries

(c) marine fisheries    (d) Both (b) and (c)

 

12.   The canal system is a characteristic feature of

(a) echinoderms (b) helminthes

(c) coelenterates (d) sponges

 

13.  Life-span of a worker bee is

(a) 10 weeks   (b) 10 days

(c) 6 weeks    (d) 15 days

 

14.   Which of the following is not found in birds?

(a) Hindlimb       (b) Pectoral girdle

(c) Pelvic girdle  (d) Forelimb

 

 

 

15.  Inhibition of gastric and  stimulation of gastric, pancreatic and bile secretions   are  controlled  by  hormones

(a) gastrin, secretin enterokinin and cholecystokinin

(b) enterogasterone, gastrin, pancreozynut and cholecystokinin

(c) gastrin, enterogasterone, chol ecysiokinin and panireozymin

(d) secretin, enterogasterone, gasirin and enterokinin

 

16.  The vitamin-C or ascorbic acid   prevents

(a) rickets   (b) pellagra

(c) scurvy   (d) antibody synthesis

 

17.   A dental disease characterised by moltting of teeth is due to the   presence of a certain chemical element in drinking water. Which of the following is that   element?

(a) Mercury   (b) Chlorine

(c) Fluorine   (d) Boron

 

18.   The enzyme enterokinase helps   in the conversion of

(a) pepsinogen into pepsin

(b) trypsinogen into trypsin

(c) caseinogen into casein

(d) proteins into polypeptides

 

19.  Which one of the following   contains the largest quantity of  extracellular material?

(a) Myelinated nerve fibres (b) Striated muscle

(c) Areolar tissue                (d) Stratified epithel ium

 

20.  Mast cells of connective tissue contain

(a) vasopressin and relaxin

(b) heparin and histamine

(c) heparin and  calcitonin

(d) serotomn and melanin

 

21.  ATPase enzyme needed for   muscle contraction is located in

(a) actinin   (b) troponin

(c) myosin   (d) actin

 

 

 

22.   Which one of the following is being   tried in India as a biofuel substitute   for fossil fuels?

(a) Jatropha  (b) Azadirachta

(c) Musa    (d) Aegilops

 

23.   Main objective of production/use of   herbicide resistant GM crops is to

(a) eliminate- weeds from the field  without the use of manual labour

(b) eliminate weeds from the field withou t the use of herbicides

(c) encourage eco-friendly herbicides

(d) reduce herbicide accumulation in food particles for health safety

 

24.  Conjugated proteins containing carbohydrates as prosthetic group are known as

(a) chromoproteins  (b) glycoproteins

(c) lipoproteins        (d) nucleoproteins

 

25.  The transfer RNA molecule in 3D   appears

(a) L-shaped    (b) E-shaped

(c) Y-shaped   (d) S-shaped

 

26.  Length of one turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is approximately

(a) 3.4 nm     (b) 2 nm

(c) 0.34 nm   (d) 20 nm

 

27.  One of the similarities between DNA and RNA is that both

(a) are polymers of nucleotides

(b) are capable of replicating

(c) have similar sugars

(d) have similar pyrimidine bases

 

28.  Which is an essential amino acid?

(a) Serine   (b) Aspartic acid

(c) Glycine  (d) Phenylalanine

 

29.  ATP is a

(a) nucleotide  (b) nucleosome

(c) nucleoside  (d) purine

 

 

30.  The  exchange of genetic material between  chromatids of paired  homologous chromosomes during first meiotic division is called

(a) transformation     (b) chiasmata

(c) crossing over      (d) synapsis

 

31.  Lampbrush chromosomes occur during

(a) prophase of mitosis     (b) diplotene of meiosis

(c) metaphase of meiosis  (d) interphase

 

32.  Genes located on mitochondrial DNA

(a) generally show maternal inheritance

(b) are always inherited from the male parent

(c) show biparental inheritance like the nuclear genes

(d) are not inherited

 

33.  During cell division in apical meristem the nuclear membrane   appears in

(a) metaphase       (b) anaphase

(c) telophase         (d) cytokinesis

 

34.  How many mitotic divisions are needed for a single cell to make 128   cells?

(a) 7       (b) 14

(c) 28      (d) 64

 

35.  Centromere is a part of

(a) ribosomes      (b) chromosome

(c) mitochondria (d) endoplasmic reticulum

 

36.  The mechanism of ATP formation both in chloroplast and mitochondria is explained   by

(a) Relay pump theory of Godlewski

(b) Chohodny-Went’s model

(c) Chemiosmotic theory

(d) Munch’s mass flow hypothesis

 

 

37.  Protein synthesis in an animal cell takes place

(a) only in cytoplasm

(b) in the nucleolus as well as in the cytoplasm

(c) in the cytoplasm as well as in   mitochondria

(d) only on ribosomes attached to nucleus

 

38.  Microtubule is involved in the

(a) cell division            (b) membrane architecture

(c) muscle contraction  (d) DNA recognition

 

39.  Crossing  over  in diploid organism is responsible for

(a) dominance of genes (b) linkage between genes

(c) segregation of alleles (d) recombination of linked alleles

 

40.  The mechanism of ATP formation both in chloroplast and   mitochondria is explained by

(a) relay pump theory of Godlewski

(b) Munch’s pressure/mass flow model

(c) chemiosmotic theory of Mitchell

(d) Cholondy-Went’s model

 

41.  Net gain of ATP molecules during   aerobic respiration is

(a) 36 molecules  (b) 38 molecules

(c) 40 molecules  (d) 48 molecules

 

42.  How many ATP molecules are   produced by aerobic oxidation of   one molecule of glucose ?

(a) 2       (b) 4

(c) 38     (d) 34

 

43.  In alcoholic fermentation

(a) oxygen is the electron acceptor

(b) triose phosphate is the electron donor while acetaldehyde is the electron acceptor

(c) triose phosphate is the electron donor while pyruvic acid is the electron acceptor

(d) there is no electron donor

 

 

 

44.  You are required to draw blood  from a patient and to keep it in a   test  tube  for  analysis  of  blood  corpuscles and plasma. You are  also provided with the following   four  types  of  test  tubes.  which  of  them will you not use for the   purpose ?

(a) Test-tube containing calcium bicarbonate

(b) Chilled test-tube

(c) Test-tube containing sodium oxalate

(d) Test-tube containing sodium oxalate

 

45.  Damage to thymus in a child   may lead to

(a) a reduction in haemog lobin content of blood

(b) a reduction in stem cell production

(c) loss of antibody mediated immunity

(d) loss of cell  mediated immunity

 

46.  Which of the following   substances, if introduce in the   blood stream, would cause  coagulation,  at  the site of its introduction ?

(a) Fibrinogen  (b) Prothrombin

(c) Heparin  (d) Thromboplastin

 

47.   Botulism caused by Clostridium  botulium affects the

(a) spleen   (b) intestine

(c) lymph glands  (d) neuromuscular junction

 

48.   Human Immunodeficiency Virus   (HIV) has a protein coat and a  genetic material which is

(a) single stranded DNA

(b) single stranded RNA

(c) double stranded RNA

(d) double stranded DNA

 

49.   Typhoid fever is caused by

(a) Giardia   (b) Salmonella

(c) Shigella  (d) Escherichia

 

 

 

 

50.   If the forest cover is reduced to half,   what is most likely to happen on a   long term basis?

(a) Tribals living in these areas will starve to death

(b) Cattle in these and adjoining areas will die due to lack of fodder

(c) Large areas will become deserts

(d) Crop breeding programmes will suffer  due to a reduced availability of variety of germplasm

 

51.   The major contributor of green- house gases to the atmosphere is

(a) Russia   (b) USA

(c) Germany  (d) Brazil

 

52.   In a food chain, the largest   population is that of

(a) decomposers            (b) producers

(c) primary consumers  (d) tertiary consumers

 

53.   The transfer of energy from one trophic level to another is governed   by the 2nd  law of thermodynamics. The average efficiency of energy  transfer from herbivores to   carnivores is

(a) 5%     (b) 10%

(c) 25%    (d) 50%

 

54.   The nature of climax community  ultimately depends on

(a) climate             (b) bed rock

(c) soil organisms (d) pool of available nutrients

 

55.   Niche of a species in an ecosystem   refers to its

(a) function at its place of occurrence

(b) place of its occurrence

(c) competitive ability

(d) centre of origin

 

56.   The most common indicator   organism which represents polluted  water is

(a) Escherochia coli  (b) Salmonella typhi

(c) Vibrio cholera   (d) Entamoeba histolytica

 

 

 

57.   Formation of ozone hole is   maximum over

(a) India    (b) Antarctica

(c) Europe   (d) Africa

 

58.   Which of the following ecosystem has the highest gross primary  productivity?

(a) Grasslands  (b) Coral reefs

(c) Mangroves  (d) Equatorial rain forest

 

59.   Which of the following is free-living aerobic non-photosynthetic    nitrogen-fixing  bacterium ?

(a) Rhizobium  (b) Azotobacter

(c) Nostoc   (d) Azospiridum

 

60.  An enzyme that can stimulate germination of barley seeds is

(a) alpha -amylase     (b) lipase

(c) protease           (d) invertase

 

61.  Modem detergents contain enzyme preparation of

(a) acidophiles    (b) alkaliphiles

(c) thermoacidophiles  (d) thermophiles

 

62.    A competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase is

(a) malonate    (b) oxaloacetate

(c) a -ketoglutarate   (d) malate

 

63.  Two dominant non-allelic genes are 50 map units apart. The linkage is

(a) cis type  (b) trans type

(c) complete  (d) absent/incomplete

 

64.  During anaerobic digestion of   organic waste, such as in   producing bio-gas, which one of  the

following is left undegraded?

(a) Cellulose  (b) Lipids

(c) Lignin   (d) Hemi-cellulose

 

 

65.  Which of the following is suitable  for experiment on linkage ?

(a) aaBB ×  aaBB  (b) AABB ×  aabb

(c) AaBb  ×  AaBb  (d) AAbb ×  AaBB

 

66.  Nucleosome core is made of

(a) H1,  H2A, H2B and H3  (b) H1, H2A, H2B,  H4

(c) H1,  H2A, H2B, H3 and H4  (d) H2A, H2B, H3 and H4

67.  Initiation codon of protein synthesis (in eukaryotes) is

(a) GUA   (b) GCA

(c) CCA    (d) AUG

 

68.  The number of base substitution possible in amino acid codons is

(a) 261               (b) 264

(c) 535               (d) 549

 

69.  Reverse transcriptase is

(a) RNA dependent RNA polymerase

(b) DNA dependent R NA polymerase

(c) DNA dependent DNA polymerase

(d) R NA dependent  DNA polymerase

 

70.  In Escherichia coli lac Operon is   induced by

(a) lactose    (b) promoter gene

(c)  ß –  galactosidase    (d) I-gene

 

71.  DNA template sequence of  CTGATAGC is transcribed over   mRNA as

(a) GUCTUTCG   (b) GACUAUCG

(c) GAUTATUG       (d) UACTATCU

 

72.   Hybridoma cells are

(a) product of spore formation in bacteria

(b) hybrid cells resulting from myeloma cells

(c) nervous cells of frog

(d) only cells having oncogenes

 

 

73.  The process of mating between closely related individuals is

(a) self breeding   (b) inbreeding

(c) hybridization   (d) heterosis

 

74.  Protein helping in opening of DNA double helix in front of replications fork is

(a) DNA gyrase    (b) DNA polymerase-I

(c) DNA ligase    (d) topoisomerase

 

75.  Which is not involved in protein synthesis?

(a) Transcription   (b) Initiation

(c) Elongation    (d) Termination

 

76.  A fruit fly exhibiting both male and female traits is

(a) heterozygous   (b) gynandromorph

(c) hemizygous     (d) gynander

 

77.  A nutritionally wild type organism; which does  not require any additional growth

supplement is known as

(a) phenotype   (b) holotype

(c) auxotroph  (d) prototroph

 

78.  The following ratio is generally constant for a given species

(a) A + G / C + T     (b) T + C / G + A

(c) G + C / A + T    (d) A + C / T + G

 

79.  The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes consist of short sequences of

(a) thymine rich repeat s (b) cytosine rich repeats

(c) adenine rich repeats  (d) guanine rich repeats

 

80.  After a mutation at genetic locus the character of an organism changes due to the change in

(a) protein structure

(b) DNA replication

(c) protein synthesis patt ern

(d)  RNA transcription pattern

 

 

Answers

  1. A
  2. C
  3. B
  4. C
  5. C
  6. D
  7. A
  8. B
  9. D
  10. D
  11. A
  12. B
  13. B
  14. C
  15. C
  16. B
  17. C
  18. B
  19. C
  20. A
  21. D
  22. B
  23. A
  24. A
  25. A
  26. D
  27. A
  28. C
  29. B
  30. A
  31. C
  32. A
  33. D
  34. C
  35. C
  36. A
  37. D
  38. C
  39. B
  40. C
  41. B
  42. A
  43. D
  44. D
  45. D
  46. B
  47. B
  48. C
  49. B
  50. B
  51. B
  52. A
  53. A
  54. A
  55. B
  56. B
  57. B
  58. A
  59. B
  60. A
  61. D
  62. C
  63. B
  64. D
  65. D
  66. D
  67. D
  68. A
  69. B
  70. B
  71. B
  72. A
  73. A
  74. B
  75. D
  76. C
  77. D
  78. A
  79. C
  80. D
  81. B
  82. C
  83. C
  84. A
  85. A
  86. D
  87. C
  88. A
  89. A
  90. B
  91. D
  92. C
  93. D
  94. C
  95. A
  96. A
  97. B
  98. D

Hints and explainations

Biology

 

6. Nephridia and flame cells are excretory organs

10. Metagenesis  is alternation of asexual  sessile polyp stage with sexual motile medusae stage both of which are diploid. Only sex cells(gametes) are haploid.

14. Forelimbs in birds are modified into wings

36. According to Peter Mitchell’s hypothesis, outward pumping of protons  across inner chloroplast or mitochondrial membrane results in accumulation of protons between  outer   membrane  and   inner membrane. Hence, a proton gradient is established. Now as protons flow back passively down the gradient, the proton motive force is utilized to synthesize ATP.

38. The function of microtubule is to guide cell organelles and chromosome movement in the cell, cell elongation and help in movements of  cilia/flagella.

41. In aerobic respiration, 38 ATP molecules  are produced.  If  aerobic respiration in  eukaryote is asked, then the answer will be 36 ATP because 2 ATP molecules are produced by FADH 2  which accepts  H +  from 2 NADH molecules produced in glycolysis

42. .    38 molecules of ATP are produced during aerobic respiration of one molecule of  glucose-

8 ATP from glycolysis-

6 ATP from acetyl Co-A.

24 ATP from Krebs cycle.

Total = 38

 

45. T-cells that mediate cell mediated immunity mature in thymus.

50. Forests are source of genetic variability/biodiversity rich

73. Inbreeding is breeding of closely related organisms, in plants usually by self pollination. Heterosis, or hybrid vigor or outbreeding enhancement, is the increased function of any biological quality in a hybrid offspring

77. A holotype is one of several possible biological types. A type is what fixes a name to a taxon. A holotype is a single physical example (or illustration) of an organism, known to have been used when the species (or lower-ranked taxon) was formally described

81. Covered smut of barley is caused by the fungus Ustilago hordei.

100. Pinus is a gymnosperm

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published.

X